PHARMACOLOGY
Spectrum activity of an anti - infective indicates the:
Anti infective effectiveness against different invading organisms
Resistance factors that the bacteria have developed to this anti infective
Cell membrane type that the anti infective affects
A client presents with symptoms of a mild head cold and sore throat, following examination a provider decided against prescribing any antibiotics for this client. What might be the reason why the health care provider is not prescribing this agent?
Limited availability of antibiotics that can be used to treat this client
Increased risk of bacterial resistance
Decreased risk of experiencing adverse effects
Gastrointestinal toxicity is a very common adverse effect seen with anti infective therapy. A patient experiencing GI toxicity might complain of
Elevated blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
Constipation and abdominal pain
Nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea
A bacteriostatic substance is one that
Directly kills any bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
Prevents growth and reproduction of specific bacteria that are sensitive to the substance
Prevents growth of any bacteria
5. Which of the following would be appropriate for treatment with a narrow spectrum antimicrobial drug?
Treatment of polymicrobic mixed infection in the intestine
Prophylaxis against infection after a surgical procedure
Treatment of step throat caused by culture identified streptococcus pyogenes
6. Random use of broad spectrum antibiotic is contraindicated. They:
Can interfere with indigenous microbiota
Are extremely nephrotoxic
Can produce dependency and psychogenic symptoms
7. The following generic and brand names are the example of aminoglycoside agents, except:
Streptomycin (generic)
Amikacin (amikin)
Eryhtromycin (E - mycin)
Gentamycin (Garamycin)
8. Which of the following is the mechanism of bacteriocidal action of kanamycin (kantrex), an aminoglycoside antibiotic?
Inhibits protein synthesis
Blocks cell wall synthesis
Folic acid synthesis inhibitor
9. Ototoxicity, vestibulo - toxic impairment, and nephrotoxicity are seen as major adverse effects of:
Lincosamides
Fluoroquinolones
Aminoglycosides
10. Which drugs / agents belong to fifth generation cephalosporins?
Ceftriaxone (rocephin)
Ceftaroline fosamil (teflaro)
Cefoxitin (mefoxin)
11. A 45 year old woman is likely to be prescribed cephalexin (keflex) for the treatment of moderate bronchitis. Upon evaluation, she states that she once took penicillin for strep throat and had a reaction to it. Which of the following types of reaction would suggest?
Constipation
Diarrhea
Rash, hives, wheezing, and shortness of breath
12. The FDA recently expanded the caution about taking fluoroquinolones antibiotics, you can recognize these medications by their floxacin stem. If the FDA put out another warning about a generic medication you know the name must be
Amoxyl
Motrin
Cipro
13. The following are the side effects of fluoroquinolone antibiotics, except:
Headache and dizziness
Nausea and vomiting
Insomnia and depression
Constipation and urinary frequency
14. The client prescribed ciprofloxacin (cipro) to treat infections caused by a wide spectrum gram negative bacteria. The following are the take home instructions of this drug be taught to the client except:
Teach client to report any tendon pain or inflammation
Increase fluid intake for at least 6 to 8 glasses a day
Avoid antacids, iron supplements and dairy products for at least 2 hours after taking this drug
Advise client to have an exposure to the sunlight
15. azithromycin (zithromax), clarithromycin (biaxin) and erythromycin (e - mycin) belong to what class of antibiotics?
Sulfonamides
Macrolides
Lincosamides
16. The following are drug - drug interaction seen with macrolides, except:
Decongestant: decreases effects of clarithromycin and erythromycin
Theophylline, a xanthine bronchodilators
Cycloserine, an antimycobacterial agent
Warfarin sodium, an anticoagulants
17. During patient education regarding own oral macrolide such as erythromycin the nurse will include which information:
The patient may take the drug with a small snack to reduce GI irritation
If GI upsets occur the drug will have to be stopped
18. Which of the following group of antibiotics show bacteriostatic action?
Monobactams
Aminoglycosides
Macrolides
19. For which serious adverse effect should the nurse closely monitor a patient who is taking lincosamides?
Hepatotoxicity
Ototoxicity
Clostridium difficile-associated diarrhea
20. Which of the following antimicrobials is true based on their drug classification?
Clindamycin: Lincosamide
Azithromycin, a fluoroquinolone agent.
Amikacin, a macrolide agent.
21. Long term management of clindamycin (cleocin) can cause which of the following conditions?
Mastitis
Crohn's disease
Cystitis
Severe pseudomembranous colitis
22. The penicillins act by:
Inhibition of protein synthesis
Interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis
Phagocytic action.
23. Which of the following agents acts by inhibiting cell wall formation in bacteria?
Isoniazid
Tetracyclines
Penicillin g
24. Penicillinase resistant penicillins include:
Ampicillin (omnipen)
Cloxacillin (cloxapen)
Amoxicillin (amoxil)
25. The most important side effect of the penicillins is which of the following choices?
Gastrointestinal distrubances
Hepatotoxicity
Hypersensitivity reactions
26. All of the following are true regarding penicillins except
Most penicillins only cross the blood brain barrier when the meninges are inflamed.
Penicillins don’t require dosage adjustment in renal failure
Piperacillin is a penicillin active against pseudomonas
Penicillins inhibit cross linkage of peptidoglycans in the cell wall
27. If penicillins and penicillin resistant antibiotics are taken concurrently with this drug, it decreases the effectiveness of the penicillin results. You are pertaining to what drugs?
Tetracyclines and aminoglycosides parenteral
Benzodizepines and tricyclic
NSAIDS and anti migraine
28. The following is true regarding the action of sulfonamides except:
Increased PABA concentrations decrease their effectiveness
Work synergistically with TMP
Prevents formation of folic acid
29. Which of the following is an example of a sulfonamide antibiotic medication?
Bactrim
Celecoxib
30. A nurse teaches a patient about sulfonamides. Which statement by the patient indicated a need for further teaching?
"I should stop taking this drug when my symptoms are gone."
"I need to use sunscreen when taking this drug."
31. The following are the adverse effects associated with sulfa drugs, except
Crystalluria
Cross allergy with furosemide
Leukopenia and agranulocytosis
Ototoxicity
32. When administering tetracycline (achromycin, panmycin, sumycin) to a client with PUD, the nurse should do the following nursing considerations except:
Give at least 1 hr before a meal
Administer with milk or milk products
Keep in a dry place
Give with full glass of water on an empty stomach
Protect from light
33. A teenage patient is taking a tetracycline drug as part of treatment for severe acne. When the nurse teaches this patient about drug-related precautions, which is the most important information to convey?
This medication needs to be taken with antacids to reduce GI upset.
When the acne clears up the medication may be discontinued
The patient needs to use sunscreen or avoid exposure to sunlight, because this drug may cause photosensitivity.
34. The nurse is reviewing the orders for a patient who has been admitted for treatment of pneumonia. The antibiotic orders include an order for doxycycline. However, when the patient is asked about his allergies, he lists "doxycycline" as one of his allergies. What is the nurse's priority action at this time?
Call the provider to clarify the order because of the patient's allergy
Ask the patient to explain what happened when he had the allergic reaction.
35. Tetracycline use during pregnancy has been associated with which of the following conditions
Excessive bleeding
Tooth and bone defects of the neonate
Sweating
36. High level of resistance of tubercle bacilli to isoniazid involves a decrease in the activity of which of the following enzymes
Acetyltransferase
Catalase peroxidase
37. The mechanism of action of rifampin includes an inhibition of which of the following enzymes?
Arabinosyl transferase
Transpeptidase
DNA-dependent RNA polymerase
38. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of resistance of M.tuberculosis to rifampin?
Changes in bacterial RNA polymerase
Changes in bacterial peptidyl transferase
39. You note your patient's sweat and urine is orange. You reassure the patient and educate him that which medication below is causing this finding?
Ethambutol
Isoniazid
Rifampin
40. A 40 year old woman complained of blurred vision and inability to distinguish green objects from red objects. The woman, recently diagnosed with cavitary pulmonary tuberculosis, has been receiving a 3 drug combination regimen for two months. Which of the following drugs has most likely caused these adverse effects?
Ethambutol
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
41. A patient with active tuberculosis is taking ethambutol. As the nurse you make it a priority to assess the patient's?
Hearing
Mental status
Vision
42. A 56 year old man complained of tingling sensation in his limbs and that his arms sometimes feel heavy. He was recently diagnosed with pulmonary tuberculosis and has been receiving isoniazid, rifampin, pyrazinamide, and ethambutol for two months. Which of the following drugs would be most appropriate to treat his symptoms?
Vitamin c
Folic acid
Pyridoxine
43. When providing health promotion teaching at a senior citizen center, the nurse would include information about which medication used to decrease the duration of influenza A and B?
Ganciclovir (cytovene)
Oseltamivir (tamiflu)
44. The nurse is obtaining a medication history from a client diagnosed with genital herpes. Which drug would the nurse expect this client to be prescribed?
Acyclovir (zovirax)
Ribavirin (virazole)
45. A client with influenza is prescribed with an antiviral drug. The nurse determines that the client indicates an understanding of the treatment if he or she state the following?
"I will not be able to infect others while I am on this treatment."
"I will take the medication exactly as prescribed."
"I will stop the medication once I feel okay."
46. All of which are examples of antiviral influenza medications except?
Amantadine (symmetrel)
Zanamivir (relenza)
Ethionamide (trecator)
Oseltamivir (tamiflu)
47. When the client is started on antiretroviral drugs for HIV, it will be important for the nurse to teach the client which of the following?
This drug will cure the disease over a period of time
This drug will not cure the disease, but could extend the life expectancy
48. A pregnant patient is HIV - positive. Which antiretroviral agent will the nurse expect the patient's provider to order?
Abacavir / lamivudine / zidovudine (trizivir)
Lamivudine/zidovudine (Combivir).
49. When providing client and family education on the nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor drug for HIV - AIDS, the nurse would include instructions:
To take the medicine on an empty stomach
Take the medicine on a full stomach
50. What is the primary assessment the nurse should make for a client who is taking ganciclovir sodium (cytovene)?
Input and output
Bowel elimination
Complete blood count
51. While monitoring a patient who is receiving intravenous amphotericin B, the nurse expects to see which adverse effects.
Hypertension
Fever and chills
52. Amphotericin B is associated with potentially serious nephrotoxicity and should not be given given concurrently with which of the following drugs?
Digoxin
Phenytoin
Corticosteroids
53. The nurse is administering amphotericin B (albelcet). This medication:
should be given with plenty of fluids.
Should be alternated with capsule and oral to increase effectiveness
54. When teaching a patient who is taking nystatin lozenges for oral candidiasis, which instruction by the nurse is correct?
Dissolve the lozenge slowly and completely in your mouth.
Dissolve the lozenges until it is half the original size and swallow it
55. What is the most common drug used to treat oral candidiasis?
Amantadine (symmetrel)
Nystatin (Mycostatin)
Oseltamivir (tamiflu)
56. Vaginal yeast infections often respond very well to which of the following antifungal drugs?
Naftifne (naftin)
Clotrimazole (lotrimin)
Tolnaftate (tinactin)
57. A client with histoplasmosis has an order for ketoconazole (Nizoral). The nurse teaches the client to do which of the following while taking this medication?
Limit alcohol to 2 ounces per day
Avoid exposure to sunlight
58. When administering fluconazole (Diflucan) to a client, the nurse should:
Encourage the client to increase fluid intake to a minimum of eight glasses of water a day to prevent crystals in the urine
Assess for nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, or diarrhea.
59. Pharmacologic antimalarial selection is based on the drug sensitivity of the species within the desired travel area. If a patient is diagnosed with chloroquine - resistant P. falciparum, which therapeutic drug would be most appropriate?
Antibiotics
Streptozocin (Zanosar)
Mefloquine (Lariam)
60. A client has returned from the North Philippines but has contracted malaria. The drug the nurse expects to see used is
Rizatripan (maxalt)
Proguanil (paludrine)
Chloroqrine (aralin)
61. Before taking chloroquine (aralen), the client should be instructed that
His blood pressure should be monitored
A CBC will need to be performed
62. An adverse reaction to metronidazole (flagyl) would be assessed by the nurse if:
Blood pressure is elevated
The client becomes hypothermic
The client tells her he has no appetite
63. A female client is treated for trichomoniasis with metronidazole (flagyl). The nurse instructs the client that
She should discontinue oral contraceptive use during this treatment
She should avoid alcohol during treatment and for 24 hours after completion of the drug
64. A nurse caring for a pediatric patient on anthelmintic therapy should be alarmed of the following adverse drug reactions, except:
Weight loss of 2 kg in 3 days
Fever and chills
All of the given choices
65. Which of the following physical assessment findings will alert the nurse for anthelmintic drug toxicity in elderly client?
Non palpable spleen
Blunt liver edge upon palpation
66. Mebendazole is the most commonly used anthelmintic. It is effective against which of the following choices
Pork tapeworms and threadworms
Pinworms, roundworms, whipworms, hookworms
67. Client teaching regarding the use of anthelmintics should include counseling about
Cardiac drug effects
Maintenance / importance of nutrition during therapy
68. The client with acute myelocytic leukemia is being treated with busulfan (myleran), an alkylating agents. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value while the client is taking this medication?
Uric acid level
Platelet count
Serum calcium
69. The nurse is providing teachings to a client receiving cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan). The nurse tells the client to which of the following?
Eat foods rich in potassium
Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day
70. A client is receiving Methotrexate (Rheumatrex) for a series of chemotherapy. Which of the following medication should be readily available to avoid toxicity?
Mesna (Mesnex)
Leucovorin (folinic acid)
71. Mitomycin (Mutamycin) is prescribed to a client with colorectal cancer. All of which are the routes of administration, except?
Oral
Intravenous
Intravesical
Intraarterial
72. The client with testicular cancer is being treated with Etoposide (etopophos), a mitotic inhibitor. Which of the following side effects is specifically associated with this medication?
Chest paine
Edema
Alopecia
73. A male client with breast cancer is receiving tamoxifen (nolvadex), a hormone and hormone modulators. The nurse specifically monitors which laboratory value?
Serum sodium and potassium
Triglyceride level
74. A client with glaucoma is receiving betaxolol hydrochloride (betoptic) eye drops. Which of the following interventions will the nurse likely do before the administration?
Monitor pulse rate
Monitor blood sugar
Assessing peripheral pulses
75. A client went to a health care facility to ask instructions regarding on how to administer ophthalmic medications. The nurse correctly instructs the client to?
Gentlo allow the tip of the optic bottle to touch with the conjuctival sac.
Apply gentle pressure with a clean tissue to the nasolacrimal duct for 30 seconds after the administration.
Blink quickly to stimulate tearing after the administration.
76. The client is receiving an eye ointment and an eye drop. The nurse instructs the client to?
Administer the eye drop, wait for 10 minutes then administer the eye ointment.
Administer the eye drop first, followed by the eye ointment.
77. A nurse is providing instructions to a client with an impacted cerumen who is prescribed with Carbamide peroxide (Debrox). Which of the following teachings made by the nurse indicates a further research?
Hold the earlobe up and back.
Use a cold preparation of the medication.
78. The nurse prepares an adult client for an ear irrigation as ordered by the physician. Which of the following procedure correctly performed by the nurse and why?
Directs a slow steady current of irrigating solution into the eardum.
Pull the pinna down and back.
Warm the irrigating solution to 98º Fahrenheit.
79. A client went to a health care facility with a complaint of difficulty opening the eyelid because of pain. The physician diagnosed the client with keratitis and is prescribed with an eye lubricant. Which medicine should the nurse expect to administer?
Pilocarpine hydrochloride (Isopto Carpine)
Hydroxypropyl methylcellulose (Lacril)
80. Which of the following NSAIDs is used to prevent thrombosis
Toradol
Motrin
Aspirin
81. To minimize the risk of dyspnea and GI bleeding, OTC ibuprofen is given
Intravenous
With meals
On an empty stomach
82. Which of the following laboratory values would indicate toxicity in the client taking acetaminophen daily?
Sodium level of 140 mEq / L
Direct bilirubin level of 2mg/dL
Platelet count of 400,000 / mm3
83. Celecoxib is what class of drug?
Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID)
Corticosteroid
84. Mefenamic acid is classified as
Cox II Inhibitor
Fenamate
85. Immunosuppressants are used of the following except:
Reduction of the number of relapses in multiple sclerosis.
Treatment of aggressive cancers.
Treatment of transplant rejection.
Treatment of autoimmune disease.
86. Interferon alfa - n3 (alferon N) would be the drug of choice for
Treatment of multiple sclerosis
Intralesional treatment of warts
87. Patient teaching of a patient receiving an interferon would include:
Proper use of oral contraceptives
Use of aspirin to control side effects
Proper methods of drawing up and injecting the drug
88. The nurse is assisting in administering immunizations at a health care clinic. The nurse understands that immunization provides which of the following?
Natural immunity from disease
Protection from all diseases
Acquired Immunity from disease
89. Vaccines are used to stimulate:
Passive immunity to a foreign protein
active immunity to a foreign protein
90. Common adverse effects associated with routine immunization would not include:
Fever and rash
Pain, redness, swelling, and nodular formation at the site of injection.
Difficulty of breathing
91. The nurse is discussing vaccines with the mother of a 4-year-old child who attends a day care center that requires the DTaP vaccine. The mother, who is pregnant, tells the nurse that she does not want her child to receive the pertussis vaccine because she has heard that the disease is "not that serious" in older children. What information will the nurse include when discussing this with the mother?
The vaccine will not be given to her child while she is pregnant.
If she gets the vaccine, both she and her 4 year old child will be protected.
If the 4-year-old child contracts pertussis, it can be passed on to her newborn.
92. What is the priority nursing assessment to monitor when administering vaccinations?
Anaphylaxis
Myalgias
93. In immunizing school entrants with BCG, you are not obliged to secure parental consent. This is because of which legal document?
RA. 7846
P.D. 996
94. A 4 week old baby was brought to the health center for his first immunization. Which can be given to him?
Hepatitis B vaccine 1
OPV1
DPT1
Infant BCG
95. A pregnant woman had just received her 4th dose of tetanus toxoid. Subsequently, her baby will have protection against tetanus for how long?
10 years
3 years
1 year
96. A 2-month old infant was brought to the health center for immunization. During assessment, the infant's temperature registered at 38.1°C. Which is the best course of action that you will take?
Advise the infant's mother to bring him back for immunization when he is well.
Go on with the infant's immunizations.
97. In our herbal medicines, what are the uses of akapulko?
Anti-fungal, ringworm, athlete's foot
Anti - helmintic
Lowers uric acid
98. In our herbal medicines, what are the uses of Lagundi?
Asthma, cough, fever, dysentery, skin diseases, aromatic bath
Anti edema, diuretic, anti urolithiasis
99. Another herbal plant which the families can use for swollen gums and toothache is:
Herba buena
Tsaang gubat
100. Since the mother's blood sugar level is high, you teach her to take which of the following herbal medicine approved by the DOH?
Garlic
Ampalaya
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