Anatomy Kru Long Sor

1. From which structure is the cerebrum embryonically derived?
Mesencephalon
Myelencephalon
Diencephalon
Telencephalon
2. Which lobe of the cerebrum is responsible for personality?
Frontal Lobe
Parietal lobe
Occipital lobe
Temporal Lobe
Other
Please Specify:
3. Which arteries supply the most lateral portions of the cerebrum?
Anterior Cerebral Arteries
Middle cerebral arteries
Posterior cerebral arteries
Basilar Artery
4. If a patient experiences damage to the temporal lobe, which symptom are they most likely to present with?
Visual field defects
Recognition deficits
Personality changes
Attention deficits
5. Which structure separates the frontal and parietal lobes from the temporal lobe?
Central Sulcus
Precentral gyrus
Lateral sulcus
Postcentral Gyrus
6. The falx cerebri is a fold of what structure?
The pia mater
The dura mater
The arachnoid mater
The Corpus Callosum
7. The cerebral veins drain into what structure?
Dural venous sinuses
Internal vertebral plexuses
External vertebral sinuses
Transverse pontine vein
8. What is the function of the corpus callosum?
Stores memories
Involved in visuospatial function
Connects the left and right hemispheres
Controls breathing rate
9. From which structure is the cerebellum embryonically derived?
Myelencephalon
Metencephalon
Telencephalon
Diencephalon
10. What structure separates the cerebellum from the occipital and temporal lobes?
Tentorium cerebelli
Longitudinal fissure
Falx cerebri
Fourth ventricle
11. Which lobe is not part of the cerebellum?
Occipital lobe
Anterior lobe
Posterior lobe
Flocculonodular lobe
12. Which functional division is responsible for balance?
Cerebrocerebellum
Spinocerebellum
Vestibulocerebellum
None of the above
13. From where does the superior cerebellar artery originate?
Internal carotid artery
Anterior communicating artery
Basilar artery
Posterior Communicating Artery
14. The colliculi sit in what relation to the pineal gland?
Superiorly
Inferiorly
Laterally
Medially
15. The colliculi of the midbrain are separated by which structure?
Substantia nigra
Cruciform sulcus
Oculomotor nerve
Trochlear Nerve
16. The interpeduncular fossa separates which two structures?
Left And Right Cerebral Peduncles
Left and right cerebellar peduncles
Corticospinal and corticobulbar fibres
Pars reticulata and pars compacta
17. At which structure do the paired cerebral peduncles converge?
Medulla
Thalamus
Pons
Red nucleus
18. The red nuclei are found at what level of the midbrain?
Inferior Colliculus
Pons
Superior colliculus
Medulla
19. The pons develops from which part of the primitive brain?
Telencephalon
Diencephalon
Mesencephalon
Metencephalon
20. Which of the following structures lies posteriorly to the pons?
Cerebrum
Midbrain
Cerebellum
Medulla
21. Which of the following cranial nerves does NOT originate from the pons?
CN IV - Trochlear
CN V - Trigeminal
CN VI - Abducens
CN VII – Facial
22. Which of the following structures connects the pons to the cerebellum?
Superior cerebellar peduncle
Middle cerebellar peduncle
Inferior cerebellar peduncle
Tentorium cerebelli
23. Which cranial nerve innervates the dura mater?
Abducens nerve (VI)
Spinal accessory nerve (IX)
Olfactory nerve (I)
Trigeminal nerve (V)
24. Where does blood collect in an extradural haematoma?
Between the dura and arachnoid mater
Between the endosteal and meningeal layers
Between the arachnoid and pia mater
Between the skull and endosteal layer
25. What is contained within the sub-arachnoid space?
Nerves supplying the arachnoid mater
Dural venous sinuses
Cerebrospinal fluid
Blood vessels supplying the arachnoid mater
26. Which best describes pia mater?
Delicate internal vascular layer
Delicate internal avascular layer
Thick external fibrous layer
Thick external fibrous avascular layer
27. Which bacterium can be responsible for meningitis?
Staphylococcus aureus
Streptococcus pneumoniae
Streptococcus pyogenes
Clostridium perfringens
28. What is the function of cerebrospinal fluid in relation to the brain
Protection
Buoyancy
Chemical stability
All of the above
29. Where is cerebrospinal fluid produced?
Cerebral aqueduct
Central spinal canal
Choroid plexus
Subarachnoid cisterns
30. What type of hydrocephalus can be caused by obstruction to the cerebral aqueduct?
Communicating hydrocephalus
Hydrocephalus ex vacuo
Non-communicating hydrocephalus
Overactive hydrocephalus
31. What type of epithelial cells surround the choroid plexus?
Cuboidal
Columnar
Transverse
Squamous
32. Which ventricles are surrounded by the foramen of Monro?
Left and right lateral ventricles to the 3rd ventricle
3rd ventricle to the 4th ventricle
Left lateral ventricle to the right lateral ventricle
Left lateral ventricle to the 3rd ventricle
33. Which of these is the main secretion of the pineal gland?
Melatonin
Calcitonin
Serotonin
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone
34. The pineal gland is attached by a stalk to the posterior wall of which ventricle?
First
Second
Third
Fourth
35. The posterior choroidal arteries originate from which main artery?
Anterior cerebral artery
Middle cerebral artery
Posterior cerebral artery
Posterior communicating arteries
36. Which of the following is the most common type of pineal tumour?
Parenchymal tumours
Germ cell tumours
Astrocytoma
Pineal cyst
37. What is located inferior to the pituitary gland?
Sphenoid sinus
Cavernous sinus
Optic chiasm
Basilar artery
38. What structure can become compressed in a pituitary adenoma, leading to problems with vision?
Basilar artery
Cavernous sinus
Optic chiasm
Pons
39. What part of the anterior pituitary gland is mainly responsible for hormone secretion?
Hypothalamus
Pars tuberalis
Pars intermedia
Pars anterior
40. Which of the following hormones is secreted by the posterior pituitary gland?
Prolactin
ACTH
FSH
Oxytocin
41. Which of the following is not part of the main arterial supply to the posterior pituitary gland?
Superior hypophyseal artery
Infundibular artery
Inferior hypophyseal artery
Occipital artery
42. The olfactory nerve is cranial nerve number
I
II
III
IV
43. The olfactory nerve exits the cranium through the:
Greater wing of sphenoid
Cribriform plate of ethmoid
Superior orbital fissure
Optic canal
44. Which of these is the correct location of the olfactory bulb?
Anterior cranial fossa
Middle cranial fossa
Posterior cranial fossa
Border of middle and posterior cranial fossa
45. The olfactory mucosa is lined by which type of epithelium?
Stratified squamous
Pseudostratified columnar
Simple columnar
None of the above
46. Which of the following conditions is most likely to follow damage to the olfactory nerve?
Dysphagia
Dysphonia
Anosmia
Aphonia
47. Which retinal fibres are present in the left optic tract?
Left temporal and left nasal
Left temporal and right nasal
Right temporal and right nasal
Right temporal and left nasal
48. Which cranial nerve is the optic nerve?
VI
III
II
XI
49. Which of these conditions is a pituitary adenoma most likely to cause?
Exophthalmos
Uveitis
Bitemporal hemianopia
Glaucoma
50. What surrounds the optic nerve?
Perineurium
Cranial meninges
Endoneurium
Epineurium
51. Where do the fibres synapse?
Lateral geniculate nucleus
Optic canal
Optic radiation pathway
Middle cranial fossa
52. Which of these muscles is not innervated by the occulomotor nerve?
Lateral rectus
Superior rectus
Inferior oblique
Medial rectus
53. The fibres from the internal carotid plexus are of which type?
Parasympathetic
Sympathetic
Somatic efferent
Somatic afferent
54. The occulomotor nerves exits the cranium through which structure?
Jugular foramen
Superior orbital fissure
Internal acoustic meatus
Foramen ovale
55. The superior branch of the occulomotor nerve supplies which muscles?
Superior oblique and medial rectus
Superior rectus and levator palpabrae superioris
Inferior rectus and medial rectus
Superior rectus and medial rectus
56. Occulomotor nerve palsy presents with which of the following appearances?
Pupil inferiorly and medially displaced
Pupil inferiorly and laterally displaced
Pupil superiorly and medially displaced
Pupil unaffected
57. What is the function of the trochlear nerve?
Somatic sensory
Somatic motor
Visceral sensory
Visceral motor
58. What is the only muscle innervated by the trochlear nerve?
Superior oblique
Inferior oblique
Superior rectus
Medial rectus
59. Through which structure does the trochlear nerve enter the orbit of the eye?
Optic canal
Superior orbital fissure
Inferior orbital fissure
Supraorbital foramen
60. In which direction does the superior oblique muscle permit movement of the eyeball?
Up and in
Down and out
Up and out
Down and in
61. The trigeminal nerve innervates structures from which pharyngeal arch?
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
62. Which branch of the trigeminal nerve carries motor fibres?
Opthalmic
Maxillary
Mandibular
All of the above
63. The maxillary nerve exits the cranium through which structure?
Foramen ovale
Foramen spinosum
Superior orbital fissure
Foramen rotundum
64. Which branch of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the lower eyelid?
Opthalmic
Maxillary
Mandibular
Opthalmic and maxillary
65. The mandibular nerve does not innervate which of these structures?
External ear
Upper teeth
Lower teeth
Tongue
66. Which of the following may be affected by an inferior alveolar nerve block?
Sensation to the upper lip
Motor innervation to the muscles of mastication
Sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Sensation to the external ear
67. Which of the following may be affected by an inferior alveolar nerve block?
Sensation to the upper lip
Motor innervation to the muscles of mastication
Sensation in the anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Sensation to the external ear
68. The branches of the ophthalmic nerve exit the cranium through which structure?
Superior orbital fissure
Inferior orbital fissure
Foramen ovale
Foramen rotundum
69. Which of the following is not a branch of the ophthalmic nerve?
Frontal
Nasociliary
Maxillary
Lacrimal
70. Which is the largest terminal branch of the ophthalmic nerve?
Frontal
Lacrimal
Nasociliary
Recurrent tentorial
71. Parasympathetic fibres hitchhike along which branch of the ophthalmic nerve?
Frontal
Lacrimal
Nasociliary
Long ciliary nerves
72. Which branch of the trigeminal nerve provides sensory innervation to the lower eyelid?
Ophthalmic
Maxillary
Mandibular
Ophthalmic and Maxillary
73. Which of the following would not test sensory innervation to the ophthalmic division of CNV?
Touching the cornea with a cotton swab
Touching the forehead with a pin
Touching the jaw with a cotton swab
Touching the bridge of the nose with a pin
74. Which foramen does the maxillary nerve pass through?
Superior orbital fissure
Maxillary foramen
Foramen ovale
Foramen rotundum
75. Which of these areas is not supplied by the maxillary nerve?
Upper eyelid
Upper lip
Cheeks
Maxillary sinus
76. Which of the following structures are innervated by parasympathetic fibres hitchhiking on the maxillary nerve?
Parotid gland
Lacrimal gland
Submandibular gland
Ciliary muscles
77. At which level of the brain is the sensory root formed?
Cerebrum
Midbrain
Pons
Cerebellum
78. The maxillary nerve innervates structures derived from which pharyngeal arch?
1
2
3
4
79. Which of the following is not a terminal branch of the maxillary nerve?
Middle meningeal nerve
Infraorbital nerve
Supraorbital nerve
Nasopalatine nerve
80. Through which foramen does the mandibular nerve leave the base of the skull?
Foramen spinosum
Foramen rotundum
Foramen ovale
Superior orbital fissure
81. Which branch of the mandibular nerve passes through the mandibular canal to eventually become the mental nerve?
Buccal branch
Inferior alveolar branch
Auriculotemporal branch
Lingual branch
82. Which of the following options best describes the role of the mandibular division in the head and neck?
Motor and sensory
Motor
Sensory and parasympathetic
Sensory
83. How many sensory nuclei does CNV have?
1
2
3
4
84. Which major nerve innervates the mylohyoid muscle?
Lingual branch
Auriculotemporal branch
Buccal branch
Inferior alveolar branch
85. Which nerve provides general sensory innervation to the anterior 2/3 of the tongue?
Buccal branch
Lingual branch
Inferior alveolar branch
Auriculotemporal branch
86. The mandibular nerve provides sensation to which of the following facial areas?
Chin
Nose
Eyelids
Eyebrows
87. Which of the following regions of the head does the mandibular nerve NOT provide sensation to?
Tongue
Lips
Ear
Nose
88. Which muscle does the abducens nerve innervate
Inferior rectus
Lateral rectus
Medial rectus
Superior rectus
89. What action does the lateral rectus muscle have on the eyeball?
Abduction
Elevation
Depression
Adduction
90. Patients suffering from damage to the abducens nerve will present with diplopia and the eyeball...
Laterally rotated
Depressed
Elevated
Medially rotated
91. Where is the abducens nucleus located?
Midbrain
Medulla
Inferior cerebellar peduncle
Pons of the brain
92. Through which structure does the abducens nerve enter the orbit of the eye?
Inferior orbital fissure
Superior orbital fissure
Optic canal
Supraorbital foramen
93. The internal acoustic meatus is part of which bone of the skull?
Sphenoid
Temporal
Parietal
Occipital
94. Which of the following is NOT an intracranial branch of the facial nerve?
Nerve to stapedius
Greater petrosal nerve
Chorda tympani
Buccal nerve
95. At which point along the course of the facial nerve are the terminal motor branches released?
Within the facial canal
At the stylomoastoid foramen
At the geniculate ganglion
Within the parotid gland
96. Which of these structures is NOT innervated by the facial nerve?
Anterior belly of digastric
Posterior belly of digastric
Stylohyoid
Orbicularis oculi
97. Which branch of the facial nerve contributes to the submandibular ganglion?
Nerve to stapedius
The buccal branch
Chorda tympani
The zygomatic branch
98. The mentalis muscle is innervated by which motor branch of the facial nerve? A. Buccal
Buccal
Zygomatic
Temporal
Marginal mandibular
99. The function of chorda tympani is to provide taste sensation to the:
Anterior 2/3 of the tongue
Posterior 1/3 of the tongue
Anterior 1/3 of the tongue
Posterior 2/3 of the tongue
100. Through which structure does the vestibulocochlear nerve exit the cranium?
Hypoglossal canal
Foramen rotundum
Jugular foramen
Internal acoustic meatus
103. Which of these symptoms is not associated with vestibular nerve damage?
Vertigo
Hearing loss
Nystagmus
Nausea
104. Where do the vestibulocochlear nuclei originate?
Pons of the brain
Inferior cerebellar peduncle
Medulla
All of the above
105. Which of the following muscles is innervated by the glossopharyngeal nerve?
Stylohyoid
Sternohyoid
Stylopharyngeus
Omohyoid
106. From which aspect of the brain does the glossopharyngeal nerve arise?
Pons
Medulla
Midbrain
Cerebrum
107. Between which two structures does the glossopharyngeal nerve enter the pharynx?
Superior and middle constrictors
Inferior constrictor and cricopharyngeus
Middle and inferior constrictors
None of the above
108. Which part of the ear does the glossopharyngeal nerve innervate?
External aspect of tympanic membrane
Internal aspect of the tympanic membrane
External ear
Inner ear
109. Which of these best describes the role of the glossopharyngeal nerve in the tongue?
Motor function
Taste to posterior 1/3 of the tongue
General sensation to posterior 1/3 of the tongue
Both taste and sensation to posterior 1/3 tongue
110. The vagus nerve is associated with the derivatives of which pharyngeal arch?
1st
2nd
3rd
4th
111. Which branch of the vagus nerve does not arise in the neck?
Pharyngeal branches
Auricular branch
Superior laryngeal nerve
Recurrent laryngeal nerve
112. If there was a lesion to the vagus nerve, what would be the average resting heart rate?
100bpm
60bpm
40bpm
150bpm
113. What is the main function of the recurrent laryngeal nerve?
Motor innervation to the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
Sensory innervation to the posterior part of the external auditory canal
Motor innervation to the muscles of the pharynx
Parasympathetic innervation to the heart
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