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Internal Medicine II Midterm

1. Diagnostic criteria of Addison disease are following, except

A. Plasma ACTH level 19 PG/DL

B. hyperpigmentation

C. Anemia and eosonophilla

D. Plasma cortisol >19 MG/DL

E. Low blood glucose in plasma

2. Clinical features of Addison disease are following, except –

A. Menstrual irregularities

B. hypoglycemia

C. hyperpigmentation

D. Muscle weakness

E. High blood pressure

3. From enumerated, what isn't specific for Myasthenia gravis?

A. Disease begins with weakness of lower limbs muscles;

B. A drooping eyelids,

C. A myasthenic crisis;

D. Damage of postsynaptic terminal's acetylcholine receptors.

4. From enumerated, what is specific for Myasthenia gravis?

A. Damage of the acetylcholine receptors in postsynaptic terminal;

B. Disorder of acetylcholine and enzyme choline acetyl transferase cooperation.

C. Damage of the voltage-gated calcium channels in presynaptic terminal;

D. Decreased level of acetylcholine;

5. From enumerated, which is response for voluntary movements of eyes?

A. Calcarine cortex;

B. Nuclei of pons Varolli

C. area 8 by Brodmann:

D. Occipital lobe.

6. Indicate main clinical features of tabes dorsalis –

A. Bulbar disturbances, Horner syndrome

B. Meningeal symptoms, papilloedema

C. paraplegia, fibrillary twitching

D. Sensitive ataxia, the absence of the knee and Achilles reflexes

7. From enumerated, at which levels are placed the lateral horns of spinal cord?

A. At the level of lumbar and sacral segments.

B. At the level of C6-Th2 segments;

C. At the level of cervical segments;

D. At the level Th2-Th12 segments

8. What is the most appropriate segments level of sympathetic ANS? –

A. Spinal cord and medulla

B. hypothalamus

C. Lateral horns cells of C4 - Th12 segments

D. Lateral horns cells of Th2 - L2 segments

9. From enumerated, what isn't specific for Myer-Hubler's alternation syndrome?

A. Palsy of mimic muscles of face;

B. Spastic hemiplegia;

C. Deviation of the eye outwards the nose.

D. Bell's sign;

10. Which of the following is typically the most difficult type of pain to treat?-

A. Intermittent somatic pain

B. Psychogenic pain

C. Continuous visceral pain

D. Tension headache

11. From enumerated, what is specific for Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A. Syringomielic anesthesia of segmental type on the opposite side from the process.

B. Central palsy below and on the side of pathological process;

C. Loss of deep sensation on the opposite side of pathological process;

D. Peripheral palsy on the side and below of pathological process;

12. Adrenergic component of the sympathetic nervous system is:

A. Cholinesterase

B. Norepinephrine

C. Acetylcholine

D. Serotonin

13. The neurotransmitters of autonomic nervous system are all the following, except:

A. acetycholine

B. epinethrine

C. noradrenalin

D. serotonin

14. From enumerated, which type of loss of sensation didn't refer to peripheral type?

A. mononeural;

B. Root type;

C. Segmental type;

D. polineural.

15. A young woman has amenorrhea, diabetes insipidus, trophic disturbances, insomnia. Choose from the list the name of the preliminary syndrome –

A. Cushing

B. Vaso-vegetative

C. Addison

D. Hypothalamic

16. From enumerated, what isn't characteristic for damage of oculomotor nerve?

A. enophthalmus;

B. ptosis;

C. diplopia;

D. Deviation of the eye outwards the nose.

17. What structures of NS are damaged in amyothrophic lateral sclerosis?

A. Spinal cord anterior and posterior roots

B. Pyramidal tracts and anterior horns

C. Spinal cord anterior and posterior horns

D. Sensory tracts and peripheral nerves

18. For Pierre Marie's disease isn't typical –

A. Cerebellar ataxia

B. Loss of coordination in the arm

C. Tendency of fall when walking

D. Deformation of foot as "pes cavus”

19. Alzheimer disease is characterized by following, except:

A. Senile plaques

B. "lacunar" infarcts

C. Neurofibrillary tangles

D. neurodegeneration

20. Vascular dementia is due to following, except:

A. Small vessel disease

B. neurodegeneration

C. "lacunar” infarcts

D. Post stroke condition

21. From enumerated, in which case the bulbar palsy syndrome is observed?

A. Due to damage of nuclei lower (caudal) cranial nerves - in one side of medulla oblongata;

B. Due to bilateral impairment of cranial nerves IX, X, Xl and XII;

C. Damage of both cortico-nuclear tracts.

22. Examination of the patient revealed central monoparesis of the right hand and motor aphasia. Choose from the list localization of pathological process –

A. Posterior limb of the internale capsule

B. Left frontal lobe

C. Middle part of the precentral gyrus

D. Broca's center

23. Myelin of CNS formed by –

A. Oligodendroglial cells

B. Microglial cells

C. astrocytes

D. Ependimal cells

24. From enumerated, in which case the quadrant anopsia isn't observed?

A. Damage of sulcus calcarina's cuneus;

B. Partial damage of the radiation of Gratiolet.

C. Damage of the lateral geniculate body;

D. Damage of gyrus lingualis;

25. From enumerated, what isn't characteristic for damage of facial nerve after chorda tympani leaves the facial canal?

A. hyperacusia;

B. Dryness of eye:

C. Loss of taste on anterior 2/3-rd of tongue.

D. Prosoplegin

26. The motor aphasia is characterized by:

A. Mutism

B. Disturbance of expressive speech

C. Disturbance of speach comprehension

D. Dysphonia

E. Speech dysartria

27. Diagnostic criteria of migraine include –

A. Absence of nausea and vomiting

B. Pulsating headache

C. Bilateral headache filling as like a band

28. Diagnostic criterion of migraine include:

A. Bilateral headache filling as like a band

B. Pulsating unilateral headache

C. Preserved phisical activity

D. Absence of nausea and vomiting

29. From enumerated, which are the symptoms of Parkinson disease?

A. ropulsions, monotonous speech;

B. Central paresis, hyperkinesis.

C. Low muscular tone, ataxia

D. Peripheral paresis, low muscular tone:

30. From enumerated, what is characteristic for damage of trochlear nerve?

A. Palsy of m. Rectus inferior;

B. Palsy of m. Obliquus inferior.

C. Palsy of m. Obliquus superior;

31. Diagnostic criteria of Friedreich's ataxia are the following, except –

A. Dysarthria within 5 years after onset of ataxia

B. Cognitive dysturbances

C. Onset before the age of 25 years

D. Lower limb areflexia

E. Decrease of proprioceptive sense in lower limbes

32. Vernicke-Korsakoff syndrome is characterized by following, except:

A. Memory loss

B. Small vessels disease

C. Deficiency of thiamine (Vitamin B1)

D. Confusion about time, place and person

33. From enumerated, what isn't characteristic for damage of facial nerve outside the stylomastoid foramen?

A. tearing;

B. Vestibular ataxia,

C. prosoplegia,

D. deafness

E. Loss of taste on anterior 2/3-rd of tongue.

34. From enumerated, which part of body voluntary movement's program is represented in medial third of anterior central convolution (precentral gyrus)?

A. Lower limb;

B. Upper limb;

C. articulation;

D. Head and neck.

35. From enumerated, what is specific for Lambert-Eaton myasthenic syndrome?

A. Damage of the acetylcholine receptors in postsynaptic terminal;

B. Damage of the voltage gated calcium channels in presynaptic terminal;

C. Damage of the synaptic cleft.

D. Disorder of acetylcD. Disorder of acetylcholine and enzyme choline acetyl transferase cooperation.holine and enzyme choline acetyl transferase

36. From enumerated, what isn't characteristic for pseudo-bulbar palsy syndrome?

A. dysartria;

B. Dysphagia

C. Uncontolled laughing or crying;

D. dysphonia;

E. anatria.

37. From enumerated, which pathology are responsible for isolative loss of deep sensation?

A. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis;

B. poliomyelitis.

C. myelitis;

D. Tabes dorsalis;

38. From enumerated, were loss of sensation is observed due to damage of median nerve?

A. The dorsal surface of hand;

B. On the palm side - I, II and partial III fingers;

C. Terminal phalanges of fingers.

D. On the palm side - IV, V and partial III fingers;

39. Both trigeminal neuralgia and atypical facial pain involve pain that may be –

A. Unilateral

B. Associated with anesthetic patches

C. lancinating

D. paroxysmal

40. From enumerated, what isn't specific for Jackson's alternation syndrome?

A. Palsy of lower mimic muscles of face;

B. Deviation of the tongue on the side of pathological process;

C. Atrophy of half of the tongue;

D. Spastic hemiplegia.

41. The neurological abnormalities due to Friedreich's ataxia are following, except –

A. Degeneration of posterior columns

B. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

C. Degeneration of spinocerebellar tracts

D. Degeneration of piramidal tracts

E. Ataxia due to autosomal dominant inheritance

42. Clinical features of Cushing syndrome are following, except –

A. Easy bruising

B. Thin lower extremities

C. Central obesity

D. Abdominal striae

E. Arterial hypotension

43. From enumerated, what is observed according to damage of inferior 2/3-d's of the anterior central fissure?

A. monoplegia;

B. brachio-facial palsy

C. paraplegia;

D. hemiplegia

44. Transection of the spinal cord is characterised by, except –

A. Dysorders of pelvic organs

B. All kinds of sensation disturbansies begin from level of transection

C. Spastic lower paraplegia

D. Spinal condactive type of paraanesthesia

45. From enumerated, what isn't observed in case of Gullain-Barre syndrome?

A. Weakness of the lower extremities;

B. paresthesia (numbness, tingling) in limbs;

C. Oculomotor cranial nerve damage.

D. Weakness of the upper extremities;

46. From enumerated, damage of which structure didn't produce palsy?

A. Anterior pyramidal tract;

B. Peripheral motoneuron.

C. Lateral cortico-spinal tract,

D. Central motoneuron;

47. In the clinical triad of ipsilateral Horner syndrome, which symptom is not correct:

A. A constricted pupil

B. exophthalmos

C. ptosis

48. The synonyms (name) of the sympathetic nervous system are all the following, except:

A. Cholinergic

B. Toracolumbal

C. Adrenergic

49. The synonym (name) of the parasympathetic nervous system is:

A. Thoracolumbal

B. Hypotalamc pituitary

C. cholinergic

50. From enumerated, were "medial lemniscus" is situated?

A. In pons Varolli

B. In medulla oblongata

C. In lateral column of spinal cord

D. Between thalamus and nucleus caudatus;

51. The main functions of the ANS are all the following, except:

A. trophotropic (homeostasis)

B. ergotropic (adaptive processes)

C. phagotropic (detection infectious agents)

52.Pacient has bradycardia (heart rhythm lowering), blood pressure lowering, asthmatic breath, myosis. Choose from the list the name of the attack, that withholds these symptoms –

A. panic

B. sympathy-adrenal

C. vagoinsular

D. mixed

53. From enumerated, which spinal nerves anterior branches form the plexus brachialis?

A. С3-C7;

B. C5-Th2

C. C2-C5;

D. C5-C8;

54. Which of the following is not correct due to sweat glands?

A. Neurotransmitter of postganglionic neurons is adrenergic

B. Neurotransmitter of preganglionic neurons is acetylcholine

C. Innervated by sympathetic nervous system

55. From enumerated, which is the pathognomonic sign of capsular hemiplegic syndrome?

A. Wernike-Mann's posture;

B. Lose of sensation.

C. qvadriplegia;

D. Central palsy of n. hypoglossus;

56. Where is the localization of epileptic lesion in seizure with motor aura?

A. In the postcentral gyrus

B. In the occipital lobe

C. In the temporal lobe

D. In the frontal lobe

57. From enumerated, in which case spinal conductive anesthesia is observed?

A. Damage of posterior horn of spinal cord.

B. Damage of lateral column of spinal cord;

C. Damage of posterior root of spinal cord;

58. From enumerated, what pathology often accompanied Syringomyelia?

A. Arnold-Chiari malformation;

B. Brown-Sequard syndrome;

C. Exramedullary neurofibroma.

D. arterio-venous malformation;

59. From enumerated, which component is not a part of myotatic reflex?

A. Renshaw cells.

B. Myoneural membranes;

C. Golgi tendon apparatus;

D. Golgi- Macconi's corpuscles;

E. motoneurons;

60. From enumerated, which pathology isn't characteristic for damage of the extrapyramidal system?

A. Intention tremor;

B. Torsion dystonia.

C. Parkinsonian tremor;

D. hemibalism;

E. athetosis

61. From enumerated, what isn't characteristic for pseudo-bulbar palsy syndrome?

A. Deafness

B. Tearing

C. Peripheral ataxia

D. Prosoplegia

E. Loss of taste on anterior 2/3-rd of tongue

62. A 20-year-old woman tells the physician that sometimes she becomes frightened when her room is dark because her computer looks like a lion lurking in the corner. This is an example of

A. An illusion

B. A neologism

C. A hallucination

D. A delusion

63.Which gender has higher prevalence of ADHD?

A. Prevalence is equal in both genders.

B. Male

C. Female

64. What is first-line pharmacologic treatment for ADHD?

A. SSRIs

B. Atypical antipsychotics

C. Lithium

D. Stimulants

65.Which of the following is a chronic mood disturbance that can cause depressive symptoms, but does not disrupt normal functioning?

A. Cyclothymic Disorder.

B. Dysthymic Disorder. (Persistant depressive disorder)

C. Dissociative disorder.

D. Personality disorder

66. A 30-year-old man comes to the psychiatrist because he is anxious about his new job. He notes that he previously held a job shelving book in the back of a library, but because of budget cuts he has been forced to interact with customers. He states he doesn’t like being around people and prefers being by himself. He appears emotionally cold and detached during the interview. Which is the most appropriate personality disorder.

A. Antisocial

B. Narcissistic

C. Histrionic

D. Borderline

E. Schizoid

67. The most common type of hallucination seen in schizophrenia is:

A. Olfactory

B. Visual

C. Auditory

D. Gustatory

68.Antipsychotic medications can cause amenorrhea by increasing plasma concentration of which hormone?

A. Estrogen

B. Prolactin

C. Growth hormone

D. Triiodothyronine

69.Which mood disorder could involve just manic episode without depressive episode?

A. Bipolar disorder 2

B. Dysthymia

C. Bipolar disorder 1

D. Cyclothymia

E. Major depressive disorder

70. Which of the following is a negative symptom of schyzophrenia?

A. Alogia

B. Delusion

C. Hallucination

D. Disorganized speech

71. A 9-year-old boy is referred to a psychiatrist because of poor school performance. He has been tested for learning disabilities but none are present, and he has an IQ in the high normal range. The teacher reports that it is hard to hold his attention and that he appears hyperactive and fidgety at school, which disrupts the class. However, he does not purposefully go out of his way to disobey the teacher. His parents have noticed no difficulties at home, but his soccer coach has noticed attention problems during practice, and his Sunday school teacher has trouble teaching him because of distractibility. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?

A. ADHD, combined type

B. ADHD, predominantly hyperactive type

C. ADHD, predominantly inattentive type

D. Oppositional defiant disorder

72.In bipolar II disorder. Major depressive episodes alternate with periods of.

A. Anxiety

B. Hypomania

C. Mania

D. Derealization

73.A 5-year-old boy is brought to the psychiatrist because he has difficulty paying attention in school. He fidgets and squirms and will not stay seated in class. It is noted that at home he talks excessively and has difficulty waiting for his turn. His language and motor skills are appropriate for his age. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Oppositional defiant disorder (ODD)

B. Attention-deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD)

C. Pervasive developmental disorder

D. Separation anxiety disorder

E. Mild mental retardation

74. A 24-year-old graduate student is shunned by his fellow graduate students because he is so "weird." He discusses topics like whether or not crystals are real forms of galactic communication, and wonders out loud about the wiring in the building where he works as to whether it has special meaning in its architecture. The student denies having any kind of hallucination and his thought process is logical and goaldirected. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Schizophrenia

B. Major depressive disorder with psychotic features

C. Schizoid personality disorder

D. Schizotypal personality disorder

E. Schizoaffective disorder

75. A 35-year-old woman has lived in a state psychiatric hospital for the past 10 years. She spends most of her day rocking, muttering softly to herself, or looking at her reflection in a small mirror. She needs help with dressing and showering, and she often giggles and laughs for no apparent reason. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Schizophrenia

B. Bipolar disorder. Manic phase

C. Schizophreniform disorder

D. Schizoaffective disorder

E. Schizophrenia

76. A 27-year-old woman has been feeling blue for the past 2 weeks. She has little energy and has trouble concentrating. She states that 6 weeks ago she had been feeling very good, with lots of energy and no need for sleep. She says that this pattern has been occurring for at least the past 3 years, though the episodes have never been so severe that she couldn’t work. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Borderline personality disorder

B. Seasonal affective disorder

C. Cyclothymic disorder

D. Major depression, recurrent

E. Bipolar disorder, depressed

77. A 24-year-old woman is hospitalized after a suicide gesture during which she superficially slashed both her wrists. At the team meeting 3 days later, the male resident argues that the patient has been doing quite well, seems to be responding to therapy, and should be allowed to leave on a pass. The nursing staff angrily argues that the resident is showing favoritism to the patient, and because of her poor compliance with the unit rules, she should not be allowed out. The resident insists the nurses are being punitive. The defense mechanism being used by the patient in this scenario is a feature of which of the following personality disorders?

A. Narcissistic

B. Histrionic

C. Borderline

D. Antisocial

E. Dependent

78. Which neurotransmiter is most likely involved in pathogenesis of schizophrenia and Parkinson's disease?

A. Noradrenaline

B. GABA

C. Dopamine

D. Serotonin

79.Which extramyramidal side-effect of antipsychotic medications is characerised by restlessness?

A. Akathisia

B. Tardive Dyskinesia

C. Pseudoparkinsonism

D. Dystonia

80. A 43-year-old woman says that when she is under stress, she often feels as if she is “outside of herself” and is watching her life as though it were a play. She knows that this perception is only a feeling and that she is really living her life. This woman is showing evidence of

A. Dissociative amnesia

B. Dissociative fugue

C. Dissociative identity disorder

D. Depersonalization disorder

E. schizophrenia

81. A 19-year-old man is brought to the physician by his parents after he called them from college, terrified that the Mafia was after him. He reports that he has eaten nothing for the past 6 weeks other than canned beans because “they are into everything––I can’t be too careful.” He is convinced that the Mafia has put cameras in his dormitory room and that they are watching his every move. He occasionally hears the voices of two men talking about him when no one is around. His roommate states that for the past 2 months the patient has been increasingly withdrawn and suspicious. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

A. Delusional disorder

B. Schizoaffective disorder

C. Schizophreniform disorder

D. Schizophrenia

E. Phencyclidine (PCP) intoxication

1. From enumerated, which is not belonged to the pathology of reflexes respond?

A. hypomimia;

B. anisoreflexia

C. hyperreflexia

D. areflexia

E. Reflexia

F. Dysreflexia

2. From enumerated, which structure is responsible for perception of thermal stimuli?

A. Meissner’s corpuscles;

B. Merkel’s meniscus;

C. Krause’s cones;

D. Ruffini’s corpuscles

3. From enumerated, what isn’t specific for Brown-Sequard syndrome?

A. Peripheral palsy on the side and below of pathological process;

B. Central palsy below and on the side of pathological process

C. Syringomielitic anesthesia of condactive type on the opposite side from the process.

D. Lost of deep sensation on the side of pathological process;

E. Flaccid palsy on the side of pathological process;

4. From enumerated, what is observed according to damage of inferior 2/3-d's of the anterior central fissure?

A. paraplegia;

B. monoplegia;

C. hemiplegia;

D. brachio-facial palsy

5. From enumerated, at which levels are placed the lateral horns of spinal cord?

A. At the level of cervical segments;

B. At the level of C6-Th2 segments;

C. At the level Th2-Th12 segments;

D. At the level of lumbar and sacral segments.

6. From enumerated, what isn’t specific for Myasthenia gravis?

A. A abnormal fatigue of oculomotor muscles;

B. Is a acute autoimmune neuromuscular dise…

C. is T-cell-dependent autoimmune disease;

7. From enumerated, what is common in conditioned and unconditioned reflexes?

A. Conditioned stimulus;

B. Unconditioned stimulus;

C. Constant reflex arch.

8. From enumerated, which structure of brain does not belong to motor zone?

A. Anterior central convolution;

B. Anterior frontal gyrus

C. Superior frontal gyrus;

9. From enumerated, the spinal nerves of which segments does not form plexus?

A. brachial;

B. cervical;

10. From enumerated, which peripheral nerve does not origin from plexus sacralis?

A. n. Cutaneus femoris lateralis;

B. n. ishiadicus;

C. n. femoralis

D. n. tibialis

11. From enumerated, were first neuron of deep and superficial sensation is situated?

A. Intervertebral ganglia;

B. Anterior horns of spinal cord;

C. Posterior horns of spinal cord;

D. thalamus.

12. From enumerated, damage of which structure didn’t produce palsy?

A. Lateral cortico-spinal tract;

B. Anterior pyramidal tract;

C. Peripheral motoneuron

D. Central motoneuron;

13. From enumerated, which data represents the minimal speed of neural impulse transmission?

A. 0.2 m/sec;

B. 10 m/sec;

C. 1.5 m/sec;

D. 20 m/sec.

14. From enumerated, what isn’t specific for Syringomyelia?

A. bilateral (two-sided) sensitive disorders

B. Loss of the superficial sensation;

C. Syringomielic anesthesia just below the affe…

15. From enumerated, in which segments is placed the plantar response reflex center?

A. L2 – L4;

B. S2 – S4;

C. L5 – S1

16. From enumerated, which type of loss of sensation didn't refer to peripheral type?

A. mononeural;

B. Root type;

C. Segmental type;

D. polineural.

17. From enumerated, which component is not a part of myotatic reflex?

A. motoneurons;

B. Myoneural membranes;

C. Golgi- Macconi’s corpuscles;

D. Golgi tendon apparatus;

E. Renshaw cells.

18. From enumerated, which spinal nerves anterior branches form the plexus cervicalis?

A. C1-C4;

B. C5-C8

C. T1-T4

D. L1-L4

19. From enumerated, from which the brain isn’t developed?

A. diencephalon;

B. prosencephalon;

C. mesencephalon;

D. rombencephalon;

20. From enumerated, which type didn’t belong to simple sensation?

A. temperature;

B. kinesthetic;

C. vibration;

D. discrimination

1. From enumerated, were in primary optic center situated center of pupils reaction to light?

A. Pulvinar of thalamus;

B. Lateral geniculate body;

C. Colliculus superior of tectum.

2. From enumerated, which layer of the cerebellum cortex transmits efferent impulses?

A. Molecular cells;

B. Purkinje cells;

C. Basket cells;

D. Granular cells.

3. From enumerated, which anatomical feature isn’t characteristic for optic nerve?

A. Axons of first neurons formed optic nerve

B. First neurons of optic nerve are disposed in the fovea centralis of macula;

From enumerated, which anatomical feature is characteristic for optic tract?

A. Formed by axons of bipolar neurons;

B. Formed by axons of 3-rd neurons;

C. Formed by axons of 1-st neurons.

4. From enumerated, which type of testing isn’t performed to reveal the deafness?

A. Schwabach test;

B. Rinne test;

C. Scarpa's test;

D. Weber's test.

5. From enumerated, which fibers of optic nerves cross through the chiasm?

A. Only nasal half of retina of both optic nerves;

B. Only temporal half of retina of bouth optic nerves;

C. Temporal half of retina of one optic nerve and nasal half of other.

6. From enumerated, which is response for voluntary movements of eyes?

A. Nuclei of pons Varolli;

B. area 8 by Brodmann;

C. Calcarine cortex;

D. Occipital lobe.

7. From enumerated, damage of which structure is the reason of Stuart-Holm’s phenomena manifestation?

A. Vermis of cerebellum

B. Basal ganglias;

C. Hemispheas of cerebellum

8. From enumerated, what isn’t characteristic for damage of ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus?

A. dysestesia;

B. paraanesthesia.

From enumerated, which anatomical feature isn’t characteristic for optic pathways after primary optic center?

A. Are axons of 4-th neurons;

B. Begins from ventral posterolateral nucleus of thalamus;

C. Begins from lateral geniculate body.

D. Terminates in calcarine fissure.

9. From enumerated, which system directly isn’t responsible for coordination of movements?

A. vestibular;

B. cerebellum;

C. optic;

D. Deep sensation

10. From enumerated, which anatomical feature isn’t characteristic for hemianopsia?

A. Defects of homonym visual fields of both eyes;

B. Defects of heteronym visual fields of both eyes;

C. Defects of ¼-th of visual fields of both eyes.

11. From enumerated, what is observed in case of impulses full block in the optic nerve?

A. amblyopia;

B. Cortical blindness;

C. scotoma;

D. amaurosis;

E. Visual hallucinations.

12. From enumerated, damage of which structure causes the loss of pupil's reacting to light and accommodation?

A. Oculomotor nerve:

B. Perlia's nucleus;

C. Abducens nerves;

D. Trochlear nerves;

E. Edinger-Westphal nuclei.

13. From enumerated, what is observed an case of damage of optic cortex center?

A. Wamblyopia;

B. Whemianopsia;

C. Cortical blindness ,

D. Mamaurosis;

E. Visual hallucinations

14. From enumerated, which structure didn't belong to auditory system?

A. Wexternal ear;

B. Middle ear;

C. Lateral ear;

D. Winner ear

15. From enumerated, what is characteristic for damage of trochlear nerve?

A. Palsy of m. Obliquus superior;

B. Palsy of m. Rectus inferior;

C. Palsy of m. Obliquus inferior,

16. From enumerated, which symptoms are of pallidar system impairment?

A. bradykinesia, micrographia, a high muscular tone;

B. Central paresis, hyperkinesis.

17. From enumerated, which anatomical feature isn’t characteristic for 4-th neurons of optic system?

A. Pass through the anterior limb of the internal capsule;

18. From enumerated, which pathology isn’t characteristic for damage of the extrapyramidal system?

A. Parkinsonian tremor

B. Intention tremor

C. Hemibalism

D. Torsion dystonia

E. Athetosis

19. From enumerated, what isn’t characteristics for damage of facial nerve outside the stylomastoid foramen?

A. Vestibular ataxia

B. Tearing

C. Prosoplegia

D. Loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of tongue

E. Deafness

20. From enumerated, which anatomical feature isn’t characteristic for facial nerve?

A. Makes outer or external knee;

B. Makes inner knee;

C. Innervates all mimic muscles of face;

D. Leaves skull by stylomastoid foramen.

1. Appearance of blood in CSF is typical for –

A. Meningitis

B. Subarachnoid hemorrhage

C. Status epilepticus

D. Ishemic stroke

2. Gold standard for diagnosis of cerebrovascular malformation is –

A. CT of the brain

B. Cerebral angiography

C. MRI of the brain

D. Ultrasound dopplerography of the vessels

3. Urgent measures for comatose patient include

A. Correction of possible hypoglicemia

B. Neurovizualisation

C. Detailed neurological examination

D. Correction of hypotheermy

Urgent measures for comatose patient include –

A. Permeability of airway system (A), adequate breathing (B), stable circulation (C)

B. Neurovizualisation

C. Lumbalur puncture

D. Correction of hypotheermy

4. From list, which tumor belongs to subtentorial?

A. Medullar tumor

B. Parietal lobe's tumor

C. Frontal lobe's tumor

D. IV ventricle's tumor

E. Occipital lobe's tumor

5. From listed below causes, most frequently stroke is due to –

A. Cardiogenic emboli

B. Big artery atherothrombosis and thromboembolism

C. Small vessel disease

D. Arteriitis and arterial dissection

6. Vascular dementia is due to following, except

A. Small vessel disease

B. neurodegeneration

C. "lacunar” infarcts

D. Post stroke condition

7. The synonyms (name) of the autonomic nervous system are all the following, except

A. somatic

B. vegetatic

C. visceral

8. The neurotransmitters of autonomic nervous system are all the following, except:

A. acetycholine

B. epinethrine

C. noradrenalin

D. serotonin

9. What is the most appropriate segments level of sympathetic ANS? –

A. Spinal cord and medulla

B. hypothalamus

C. Lateral horns cells of C4 - Th12 segments

D. Lateral horns cells of Th2 - L2 segments

10. The most striking neurologic complication of von Economos encephalitis (encephalitis lethargica), a type of encephalitis that occurred in epidemic proportions along with viral influenca between 1917 and 1928 was –

A. Blindness

B. Hearing loss

C. Paraplegia

D. Parkinsonism

11.Coma, caused by supratentorial damage can be due to –

A. Tumor of frontal pole

B. Tumor of the temporal lobe

C. Brain stem hemorrhage

D. Subdural and epidural hematoma

12. A 62-year old man with a history of myocardial infarction awakens with a dense right sided hemiplegia. His eyes are tonically deviated to the left and he does not respond to threat on the right side of his visual field. He appears to be alert and responds to pain on the left side of his body. His speech is unintelligible and nonfluent and he follows no instructions. Efforts to get him to repeat simple phrases consistently fail. Pick the language disturbance that best explains the clinical picture

A. Broca’s aphasia

B. Wernicke’s aphasia

C. Anomic aphasia

D. Global aphasia

13. A 55-year-old woman has a progressive dementia over the past year. Over the last 3 months she has developed dysarthria, myoclonus intention tremor and hyperreflexia. Her CSF VDRL is positive. This patient’s symptoms are being caused by which of the following? –

A. A response to penicillin treatment

B. An autoummune reaction

C. An acute meningoencephalitis

D. A chronic meningoencephalitis

14. Stroke of the middle cerebral artery cause –

A. Sensomotor l hemiparesis with prevalence of weakness in the leg

B. Contralateral hemiplegy, hemisensory deficit, homonymous hemianopsia , aphasia or gnostic disrturbances

C. Syndrome of Wallenberg

D. Tetraplegy, damage of cranial nerves, altered conscious

15. The synonyms (name) of the sympathetic nervous system are all the following, except:

A. Cholinergic

B. Toracolumbal

C. Adrenergic

16. Clinical features of Cushing syndrome are following, except –

A. Easy bruising

B. Thin lower extremities

C. Central obesity

D. Abdominal striae

E. Arterial hypotension

17. Which of the following is typically the most difficult type of pain to treat? –

A. Psychogenic pain

B. Intermittent somatic pain

C. Continuous visceral pain

D. Intermittent neuropathic pain

18. Among listed below conditions, subtentorial cause of coma state can be attributed to –

A. Anterior cerebral artery infarcion

B. Hypoglicemia

C. Lobar hemorrhage

D. Cerebellar infarction

19. For myelitis transversa it is typical presence of –

A. Paraplegia and anesthesia

B. Hemiplegia and hemianesthesia

C. Alternatrive syndroms

D. Dissociative sensory disturbances

20. Senso-motor cerebral stroke involve –

A. Only hemisensory disturbances

B. Isolated hemiparesis without other signs

C. Coexistance of hemiparesis and hemisenory disturbances without other signs

D. Paresis of the leg and ipsilateral ataxia

1. Average prevalence of epilepsy in the world is:

A. 1%

B. 3%

C. 0.5%

D. 5%

2. In patients with multiple sclerosis stable neurological deficit is due to –

A. Axonal damage

B. Eosinophilic pleocytosis

C. Disturbance between T-kiliers and T helpers ratio

D. Periventricular demyelinisation

3. Choose from the list, what belongs to clinical sign of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis?

A. Urination disturbances

B. Sensitive disturbances

C. Fibrillary twitching in the impaired muscles

D. Alternating syndromes

4. In acute transverse myelitis –

A. Section of spinal cord revealed damage of all spinal tracts

B. Signs of spinal cord damage are asymmetric

C. Damage of spinal cord destroy only several tracts

D. Demyelinating areas extend to the pons and cerebellum

5. What isn't familiar to myotonia congenital?

A. It is Thomsen's disease

B. A tonic spasm of muscle after forceful voluntary contraction

C. Defects in the voltage-dependent chloride channel gene

D. Involvement in process of smooth and cardiac muscles

6. From list, which isn't early symtom of MS?

A. Dizziness and unsteadiness

B. Bulbar disorders

C. Retrobulbar neuritis

D. Absence of abdominal reflexes

E. Decreasing of viobration sense

7. What is observed according to irritation of the right postcentral gyrus superior part?

A. Asteriognosia in right upper limb

B. Loss of compound sensation in left upper limb

C. Central palsy in right lower limb

D. sensory Jackson in right lower limb

8. Choose from the list what belongs to generalized seizures?

A. absences

B. adversive

C. psyhomotor

D. Simple sensory

9. What diagnostic method can prove the diagnosis of epilepsy?

A. CT scanning

B. MRI

C. electroencephalography

D. radioisotope

10. The man with 15 year duration of epilepsy referred to urgent department with generalized tonic-clonic seizures with continous epileptic seizures. The drug of first choice is:

A. Midazolame

B. Diazepame

C. Alprazolame

D. Ethosuximide

11. The following is the sign of cryptogenic epilepsy:

A. Non genetic disorders confirmed by neuroimagi

B. The developmental disorder of brain

C. Genetic predisposition

D. Focal epileptic seizures due to brain disorder not confirmed by neuroimaging

12. New attack of multiple sclerosis can be defined if time between onset of two attacks is not less than

A. 10 days

B. 15 days

C. 20 days

D. 30 days

13. Choose from the list what didn't belong to partial (focal) seizures:

A. absence

B. adversive

C. motor Jackson's

14. Relapse of multiple sclerosis is identified as acute neurological defecit lasting not less than –

A. 2 hours

B. 10 hours

C. 4 hours

D. 24 hours

15. Choose from the list what didn't characterize temporal epilepsy?

A. Derealization feeling "déjà vu"

B. Distorted perceptions of time

C. Feelings of tingling or like pins and needles

D. Impaired consciousness

Choose from the list what characterize temporal epilepsy?

A. Tonic seizures

B. Distorted perceptions of time

C. Twitching in the limbs

D. Loss of consciousness

16. The neurological abnormalities due to Friedreich's ataxia are following, except –

A. Degeneration of spinocerebellar tracts

B. Hypertrophic obstructive cardiomyopathy

C. Degeneration of posterior columns

D. Degeneration of piramidal tracts

E. Type of ataxias with autosomal dominant inheritance

17. During a head trauma a patient lost consciousness. In 5 min he didn't remember the events before and after the trauma. On examination there are anisoreflexia of the knee reflexes, weakness of the convergence of the eye balls, decreasing of the corneal reflexes. What is the preliminary diagnosis? –

A. Brain concussion

B. Brain contusion

C. Brain compression

D. Epidural hematoma

18. What structures of NS are damaged in amyothrophic lateral sclerosis?

A. Spinal cord anterior and posterior horns

B. Sensory tracts and peripheral nerves

C. Pyramidal tracts and anterior horns

D. Spinal cord anterior and posterior roots

19. The following drug of choose for the treatment of myoclonic seizures is –

A. Valproic acid

B. ethosuximide

C. clonazepame

20. Choose from the list what characterize serial epileptic seizures?

A. Adversive seizures

B. Atonic seizures

C. Postictal period

D. acidosis

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