QCM B
1. An upper incisor, which is inside the bite should be treated (
A. Before 7 years old
B. As soon as possible
C. At 12 years old to keep treatment to a minimum
D. As soon as the maxillary first premolars can be clasped
2. Angle’s class II malocclusion is worsened by(
A. Retarded mandibular growth
B. High arch palate
C. Deep bite
D. Open bite
3. In examining the primary dentition, if it is observed that a lateral incisor is congenitally missing, it is likely that the(
A. Permanent Canine will be missing
B. Permanent Lateral Incisor will be also missing
C. Permanent lateral incisor will be slow in eruption
D. Normal eruption of the permanent lateral Incisor is reasonably seen
4. A 9-years-old child has crowding of the mandibular anterior teeth, and end-on molar relationship and Class II facial profile. The mixed dentition analysis shows a -4.4mm mandibular discrepancy. Which of the following is best managed at this time(
A. Plan for functional appliance with Face mask treatment
B. Begin serial extraction program to create room for posterior teeth
C. Remove a mandibular lateral incisor to allow the crowded anterior teeth to align themselves
D. Do nothing because the probability is good that the child’s apparent malocclusion is a transient stage and future growth spurts will correct the problem
5. Which of the following affects the outcome of the treatment of class II malocclusion?(
A. Low FMA
B. Class II skeletal base
C. Incompetent lips
D. Abnormal oral habit
6. In EMG, activity of mentalis muscle was detected very high. The patient might have(
A. Class I malocclusion
B. Class II D1 malocclusion
C. Class II D2 malocclusion
D. Class III malocclusion
7. Examination of a mixed dentition malocclusion reveals abnormal resorption pattern in primary teeth, delayed eruption of permanent teeth, incompletely formed roots of permanent teeth and a large tongue. Which of the following would be suspected as an etiological factor?(
A. Hypothyroidism
B. Addison’s disease
C. Van Recklinghausen disease
D. History of severe febrile disease
8. Treatment of diastema because of thick labial frenum is done(
A. After frenectomy
B. After eruption of canine
C. Before eruption of canine
D. Before frenectomy
9. If patient is suffering from achondroplasia in which midface structures are most commonly affected, one would expect to find which of the following malocclusions(
A. Class I
B. Class II
C. Class III
D. Group 5
10. A child is in the mixed dentition phase, which of the following is not indicated to correct(
A. Transient Class II malocclusion
B. Class III malocclusion
C. Thumb sucking habit
D. All of the above
11. The major aetiological factor for Class II malocclusion is(
A) Sleeping habits
B) Thumb sucking
C) Tooth size-arch length discrepancy
D) Growth discrepancy
12. High lower lip is a characteristic feature of(
A) Class II/2
B) Class II/1
C) Class III
D) Class I
13. Which of the following contribute to severity of increased overbite in Class II malocclusion?(
A) Lip activity and crowding
B) Overclosure and crowding
C) Skeletal relationship of jaws and reduced facial height
D) Increased lower facial height and dental relation
14. The availability of orthodontic treatment depends on(
A) Severity and extent of periodontal lesions
B) Amount of bone available
C) Prognosis of periodontal lesions without ortho treatment
D) All of the above
15. Most Class II malocclusion can be prevented by(
A) Maintaining the integrity of primary dentition
B) Preventing deleterious habit
C) Breast feeding
D) No known technique
16. Diastema is often caused by(
A) Tongue thrusting
B) Finger sucking
C) Mouth breathing
D) Both a and b
17. The facial profile of adenoid faces/mouth breather is characterized by(
A) Long and wide
B) Long and narrow
C) Short and wide
D) Short and narrow
18. The optimal time to employ an orthodontic appliance that takes advantage of growth during(
A) Late primary dentition
B) Early mixed dentition
C) Late mixed dentition
D) Early permanent dentition
19. A deficiency of 6–8 mm usually requires extraction of(
A) 2nd premolars
B) 2nd molars
C) 1st premolars
D) 1st molars
20. Premature exfoliation of deciduous canine indicates(
A) Arch length deficiency
B) Skeletal malocclusion
C) Internal resorption
D) Arch length excess
21. Which of the following conditions is more prone for trauma to the maxillary anterior teeth?(
A) Severely proclined maxillary anteriors
B) Retroclined upper anteriors
C) Rotated upper anteriors
D) Mesially tilted incisors
22. Which of the following factors may contribute to severity of the incisor overbite in Class II/2 malocclusion?(
A) Lip activity
B) Overclosure
C) Anteroposterior base relationship
D) The reduced lower facial height
23. A 8-year-old patient has good occlusion with full teeth present for that age. One of the central incisors is rotated with a large midline diastema. The most probable cause will be(
A) Thick labial frenum
B) Presence of supernumerary tooth
C) Thick labial frenum
D) Juvenile periodontitis
24. Radiograph of a 5-year-old child shows an erupting permanent first molar erupting mesially resulting in resorption of roots of primary second molar. This condition is(
A) Ectopic eruption
B) Ankylosis
C) Skeletal malocclusion
D) Premature exfoliation
25. The best advantage can be derived if orthodontic treatment is started(
A) After puberty
B) Early adolescent
C) At or just after onset of puberty
D) None of above
26. A large freeway space is related to(
A) Increased overjet
B) Anterior crossbite
C) Anterior open bite
D) Anterior deep bite
27. Angle’s Class II malocclusion occur in(
A) 60% of population
B) 30% of population
C) 5% of population
D) Less than 5% of population
28. Imbrication of lower anteriors is mainly due to(
A) Presence of supernumerary tooth
B) Arch length-tooth size discrepancy
C) Premature loss of primary tooth
D) Mesial migration of tooth
29. In an individual in whom mandible is growing forward less than it should be, the mandibular incisors will probably be inclined(
A) Forward
B) Backward
C) Normally
D) None of the above
30. In an individual who has past the adolescent growth spurt, the best single indicator of a problem too severely for likely success with camouflage is(
A) > 10 mm overjet
B) < 10 mm overjet
C) Deep bite
D) Increase height of middle third of face
31. All of the following are dental characteristics of a skeletal Class III malocclusion, except(
A) Anterior crossbite
B) Disto-occlusion
C) Linguoversion of mandibular molar
D) Posterior crossbite
32. An apparent unilateral crossbite involving the permanent maxillary 1st molar may be associated with(
A) A mandibular shift
B) A bilateral constriction of the maxilla
C) Correction of maxillary arch with expansion
D) All of the above
33. The main area of concern in diagnosis and treatment planning for the child is/are(
A) Oral medical problem
B) Dental caries and restorative dentistry
C) Occlusion and craniofacial growth and development
D) All of the above
34. Forward growth of the maxilla is largely controlled by soft tissue matrix in which it is embedded. Clinically experience has shown that more than .... Mm of forward displacement of maxilla is unlikely, mostly because of soft tissue limitation.(
A) 2
B) 3
C) 5
D) 7
35. An orthodontist is examining a case with Class III incisor relation; which of the following contributes to poor prognosis(
A) Reduced overbite
B) Deviated path of closure
C) Retroclined upper incisor
D) Crowding of lower arch
36. Malocclusion might lead to which of the following(
A) Dental caries
B) Facial asymmetry
C) Abnormal facial function
D) All of the above
37. In correcting anterior crossbite, the appliance to be used is determined by(
A) Amount of overbite
B) Age of the patient
C) Cooperation of the patient
D) All of the above
38. Which of the following increases the incidence of root resorption during orthodontic camouflage treatment?(
A) Torquing of upper incisor back in Class II/2
B) Torquing the lower upper incisor facially
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
39. Horizontal overlap of incisors is known as(
A) Overjet
B) Overbite
C) Open bite
D) Deep bite
40. Orthodontic treatment is not indicated in(
A) Adults
B) Chronic gingivitis
C) Deciduous dentition
D) Mixed dentition
41. Which of the following procedures is best suited to correct bimaxillary protrusion?(
A) Extraction of four premolars and anterior alveolar repositioning
B) Mandibular body osteotomy and posterior maxillary osteotomy
C) Subcondylar osteotomy
D) None of the above
42. The main criteria for serial extraction is(
A) Crowding
B) Patient’s cooperation
C) Spacing
D) Jaw relation
43. Anterior open bite associated with Class I molar relation is generally due to(
A) Thumb sucking
B) Mouth breathing
C) Abnormal swallowing
D) None of the above
44. Vertical overlap of incisors is known as(
A) Overjet
B) Overbite
C) Deep bite
D) Open bite
45. If premolar erupts in the place of canine it is called as(
A) Torsiversion
B) Transversion
C) Retraction
D) Contraction
46. A patient has a functional shift towards right due to crossbite; the indicated treatment is(
A) Bilateral maxillary expansion
B) Expansion of the maxilla on the side of functional shift
C) Expansion of maxilla opposite to the side of functional shift
D) None of the above
47. Which of the following procedures is best suited to correct bimaxillary dentoalveolar protrusion?(
A) Extraction of four premolars and anterior alveolar repositioning
B) Mandibular body osteotomy and posterior maxillary osteotomy
C) Only maxillary premolar extraction
D) Only mandibular premolars extraction
48. To regain arch length in anterior segment by moving incisors labially(
A) Cephalometrics analysis has to be done before taking up treatment
B) Use tongue blade therapy
C) Use a Z spring with Hawley’s retainer
D) Use an anterior bite plane
49. Removal of upper permanent second molars is preferred in treatment of(
A) Mild Class II/1 cases
B) In adult patients
C) When upper and lower permanent third molars are congenitally absent
D) When upper and lower permanent first molars are inclined distally
50. In a child, a fibrous maxillary frenum associated with a diastema between central incisors should be(
A) Treated by frenectomy
B) Observed until permanent canines erupt
C) Surgically removed before initiating orthodontic treatment
D) Left alone because the conditions will self correct
51. In Class II/2 cases lower lip line at rest is(
A) At the incisor tip of the lower incisor
B) At the middle third of the upper incisor
C) Above the middle third of the upper incisor
D) Just touching the tip of upper incisor
52. A malocclusion is characterized by contraction of maxillary denture, labioversion of maxillary incisors, deep overbite and overjet. These are typical characteristics of a malocclusion of which of the following Angle classification(
A) Class I
B) Class II/1
C) Class II/2
D) Class III
53. Backward path of closure is seen in which type of malocclusion(
A) Class I
B) Class II/1
C) Class II/2
D) Class III
54. Total mandibular arch contained within the maxillary arch is called(
A) Scissors bite
B) Deep bite
C) Reverse bite
D) Crossbite
55. An Angle Class II malocclusion is worsened by(
A) Overclosure
B) Short facial height
C) Decreased mandibular growth
D) Lip activity decreased
56. Main factor for causation of Class III malocclusion is(
A) Hereditary
B) Abnormal muscle forces
C) Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
D) Abnormal frenal attachment
57. Most prominent feature of Angle Class II/2 malocclusion is(
A) Lingually placed maxillary central incisors
B) Labioversion of maxillary central incisors
C) Large overjet
D) High palatal vault
58. "Lip protrusion" is influenced by which of the following factors(
A) Thickness of the soft tissues
B) Ethnic characteristics
C) Tone of the orbicularis oris muscles
D) All of the above
59. If a primary tooth is removed quite prematurely, this will cause(
A) Early eruption of permanent teeth
B) Delays the eruption of permanent teeth
C) Eruption of permanent teeth cannot be predicted
D) All of the above
60. Normal overbite overlapping anterior teeth is(
A) 1/3 of crown of lower anterior
B) 1/2 of crown of lower anterior
C) 3/4 of crown of lower anterior
D) None of the above
61. Anthropometry deals with measurements(
A) On dry skull
B) On living skull
C) Landmarks established in studies of dry skulls
D) All of the above are measured in living individuals
62. Inability to pronounce bilabial consonants and a production of a lisp-like sound is associated with which type of malocclusion(
A) Class I with anterior crossbite
B) Class III
C) Class II with posterior crossbite
D) Class II/1 with incompetent lips
63. Lip incompetence may be due to(
A) Increased anterior lower facial height
B) Short resting lip length
C) Large anteroposterior skeletal discrepancy usually Class II malocclusion
D) All of the above
64. In a skeletal Class III malocclusion, the mandible would have undergone a(
A) Backward rotation
B) Forward rotation
C) Clockwise rotation
D) Distal rotation
65. A patient with Down’s syndrome may have(
A) Microglossia
B) Class II tendency
C) Short anterior cranial base
D) Proclined maxillary incisors
66. A pseudo Class III malocclusion is most of the time associated with(
A) Deep bite
B) Anterior crossbite
C) Maxillary protrusion
D) Maxillary retrusion
67. Scissors bite can be defined as(
A) When upper arch lies palatal to the lower arch
B) Edge-to-edge relationship of upper and lower arch
C) Anterior crossbite
D) When upper arch teeth are further buccally, than their normal position
68. Anterior facial height decreased in(
A) Skeletal open bite
B) Skeletal deep bite
C) Long face syndrome
D) Counterclockwise rotation of mandible
69. Hyperactivity of the mentalis muscle is generally seen in(
A) Class II/1
B) Class II/2
C) Class III
D) Class I
70. Most commonly used horizontal plane of orientation is(
A) SN plane
B) FH plane
C) Mandibular plane
D) Occlusal plane
71. Which of the following condition is always present in class II/2 malocclusion?(
A) Open bite
B) Crossbite
C) Deep bite
D) Deviated bite
72. In a 9-year-old boy with good posterior occlusion and no arch length deficiency, one maxillary central incisor is severely rotated causing large median diastema. The procedure of choice is(
A) Excise the labial frenum
B) Extract the maxillary central incisor
C) Examine the supernumerary tooth
D) Correct the rotation orthodontically as early as possible
73. Which of the following types of malocclusion mandates that the treating clinician strongly advised the parents to authorize the treatment as soon as condition is diagnosed?(
A) Anterior crossbite
B) Posterior crossbite
C) Anterior open bite
D) All of the above as a result of habit
74. On doing arch length analysis a discrepancy of 10 mm is noticed. Treatment would be(
A) Expansion appliance
B) Proximal stripping
C) Orthodontic correction with extraction
D) Orthodontic correction without extraction
75. Most common skeletal base relation seen in Cleft Lip and Palate cases is(
A) Class II
B) Class III
C) Class I
D) None
76. Face consisting of narrow mid-face diversion, protruding teeth and lips separated at rest is known as(
A) Adenoid facies
B) Orthognathic profile
C) Anterior diversion
D) Concave profile
77. Though the patients with Class II div 2 have acceptable profile the objective of treating them is(
A) Improve speech
B) Improve upper facial height
C) Relieve gingival trauma
D) Improve profile
78. Dolicocephalic patient has(
A) Long, wide arches
B) Long, narrow arches
C) Short, narrow arches
D) Short, wide arches
79. Speech problems associated with cleft palate are result of(
A) Improper seal between palate and nasal cavity
B) Improper contact between tongue and epiglottis
C) Inability of tongue to contact the teeth
D) Poor lip musculature
80. Any shift in the coincidence of the upper and lower dental midline may be due to(
A) Local crowding or spacing
B) A part of skeletal asymmetry
C) Both of the above
D) None of the above
81. Which of the following is false about peer assessment rating (PAR) index?(
A) It was developed by Richmond et al
B) It is used to assess the treatment outcome
C) It has 5 components: anterior alignment, buccal occlusion, overjet, overbite, centerline
D) Only pretreatment casts are scored
82. Excessive hyperactivity of labial muscle activity can result in(
A) Flaring of the upper anterior teeth
B) Flaring of the lower anterior teeth
C) Lingual inclination of lower anterior teeth
D) None of the above
83. To localize a supernumerary or an impacted tooth and determine its exact relationship to the other teeth, which of the following would be most effective(
A) Cone beam computer tomography
B) OPG
C) Lateral ceph
D) A periapical and an occlusal view
84. In determining a patient's skeletal growth pattern, the most important factor is(
a) Genetic and hereditary
B) Diet
C) Habits
D) Dental occlusion
85. Patients with skeletal deep bite are characterized by(
A) Square gonial angle
B) Short nose-chin distance
C) Long mandibular ramus
D) All of the above
86. Orthodontic closure of diastema is not undertaken if it’s due to(
A) Arch length excess
B) Rapid maxillary expansion therapy
C) Ugly duckling phase
D) Mesiodens
87. In Class II div 1 cases lower second premolars are the chosen teeth for extraction(
A) Because it reduces the risk of damaging the mental nerve
B) Because extracting first premolars would make bite opening very difficult
C) Facilitates loss of posterior anchorage
D) They are larger than the first premolars and hence provide more space
88. To estimate the amount of curve of additional arch length needed to level the curve of Spee for individual patient, the procedure is(
A) Consider the left and right side curve of Spee separately
B) Take the average of left and right side of curve of Spee
C) Take the average of left and right side curve of Spee and add 0.5 mm to this
D) None of the above
89. Orthodontic correction is indicated in pre-school age child for the following, except(
A) Anterior crossbite
B) Narrow upper arch
C) Abnormal muscle habit
D) Class II malocclusion
90. If the patient has facial asymmetry, the assessment of the facial asymmetry is important, and it is done in which of the following planes(
A) Vertical
B) Transverse
C) Sagittal
D) Both a and b
91. Orthodontic diagnosis should include all the following except(
A) Medical and dental history
B) Chief complaint
C) Physical examination
D) Laboratory services available
92. Which tooth is least extracted for orthodontic treatment purpose(
A) 1st premolars
B) Canines
C) 2nd premolars
D) 1st molars
93. Following information can be obtained from study model except(
A) Overjet and overbite
B) Arch symmetry
C) Tooth measurement
D) Periapical bone condition
94. Choice of tooth extracted for most of crowding cases in orthodontics is(
A) Upper central incisors
B) Upper canines
C) 1st molars
D) 1st premolars
95. Unilateral crossbite accompanying a bilateral constriction of the maxilla is usually associated with(
A) Deep bite
B) Ectopic eruption
C) Mandibular shift
D) All of the above
96. The diagram that semi-quantitatively depicts the influence of surgery, orthodontics and growth modulation on tooth position is called(
A) The border diagram
B) The envelope of discrepancy
C) Possoult diagram
D) Surgical treatment objective
97. The classic "adenoid facies" presents with(
A) Narrow arches, protruding teeth, incompetent lips and long face
B) Broad arches, retroclined teeth, thick lips and short face
C) Narrow arches, competent lips and short face
D) Broad arches, protruding teeth and incompetent lips
98. Camouflage treatment could be attempted with following conditions(
A) Severe Class III malocclusion in adults
B) Severe protrusion and crowding incisors
C) Patients with good growth potential
D) Mild skeletal discrepancy with minimal growth left
99. The term which denotes that teeth are protruded in both the jaws is(
A) Bimaxillary protrusion
B) Bimaxillary dentoalveolar protrusion
C) Both are correct
D) Both are wrong
100. One of the following does not come under principles of treatment planning(
A) Developmental problems
B) Treatment possibilities
C) Periodontal considerations
D) Gait of the patient
101. Following need not be considered during treatment plan(
A) Condition of the oral hygiene
B) Tooth movement and the type of appliance
C) Trebacular pattern of bone
D) Cooperation of the patient
102. Moyer’s prediction values are used to assess the(
A) Predicted growth remaining in a patient
B) Combined width of all the posterior teeth in the arch
C) Incisor liability
D) Width of erupting canine and premolars in one quadrant
103. The term 'bimaxillary' protrusion means(
A) Both the jaws are protruded
B) In both the jaws, teeth are protruded
C) Both the statements are correct
D) Both the statements are wrong
104. High FMA cases have skeletal open bite tendencies/patterns and are(
A) Easy to treat
B) Difficult to treat
C) Treatment result cannot be predicted
D) None of the above
105. Which among the following malocclusions is the most difficult to camouflage?(
A) Skeletal Class I malocclusion
B) Skeletal Class II malocclusion
C) Skeletal Class III malocclusion
D) Skeletal deep bite malocclusion
106. Degenerative temporomandibular joint problem(
A) Is unlikely to be improved by orthodontic treatment
B) Can be corrected by orthodontic treatment
C) Is an absolute contraindication for orthodontic treatment
D) Is caused by orthodontic treatment always
107. According to the envelope of discrepancy, maximum amount of upper incisor retraction achieved is(
A) 7 mm
B) 16 mm
C) 9 mm
D) 26 mm
108. In patients with rheumatic heart disease, antibiotic coverage is must while(
A) Placing bands
B) Placing wire
C) Placing brackets
D) Placing headgear
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