Atp copa 2
Aviation Weather Mastery Quiz
Test your knowledge on aviation weather and meteorology with this comprehensive 71-question quiz! Designed for aviation enthusiasts, pilots, and learners, this quiz covers a wide range of topics including cloud types, jetstreams, turbulence, and more.
Join us in enhancing your understanding of weather phenomena that affect flight safety through:
- Multiple-choice questions
- Real-world scenarios
- In-depth aviation knowledge
Which type of icing is associated with the smallest size of water droplet similar to that found in low-level stratus clouds?
A: Clear ice.
B: Frost ice.
C: Rime ice.
Which is a necessary condition for the occurrence of a low-level temperature inversion wind shear?
A: The temperature differential between the cold and warm layers must be at least 10 °C.
B: A calm or light wind near the surface and a relatively strong wind just above the inversion.
C: A wind direction difference of at least 30° between the wind near the surface and the wind just above the inversion.
What is the lowest cloud in the stationary group associated with a mountain wave?
A: Rotor cloud.
B: Standing lenticular.
C: Low stratus.
Where is the normal location of the jetstream relative to surface lows and fronts?
A: The jetstream is located north of the surface systems.
B: The jetstream is located south of the low and warm front.
C: The jetstream is located over the low and crosses both the warm front and the cold front.
Which type frontal system is normally crossed by the jetstream?
A: Cold front and warm front.
B: Warm front.
C: Occluded front.
Which type clouds may be associated with the jetstream?
A: Cumulonimbus cloud line where the jetstream crosses the cold front.
B: Cirrus clouds on the equatorial side of the jetstream.
C: Cirrostratus cloud band on the polar side and under the jetstream.
Which action is recommended if jetstream turbulence is encountered with a direct headwind or tailwind?
A: Increase airspeed to get out of the area quickly.
B: Change occurs to fly on the polar side of the jetstream.
C: Change altitude or course to avoid a possible elongated area.
Which action is recommended regarding an altitude change to get out of jetstream turbulence?
A: Descend if ambient temperature is falling.
B: Descend if ambient temperature is rising.
C: Maintain altitude if ambient temperature is not changing.
Clear air turbulence (CAT) associated with a mountain wave may extend as far as.
A: 1,000 miles or more downstream of the mountain.
B: 5,000 feet above the tropopause.
C: 100 miles or more upwind of the mountain
Turbulence encountered above 15,000 feet AGL, not associated with cloud formations, should be reported as:
A: convective turbulence.
B: high altitude turbulence.
C: clear air turbulence.
What is likely location of clear air turbulence?
A: In an upper trough on the polar side of a jetstream.
B: Near a ridge aloft on the equatorial side of a high pressure flow.
C: Downstream of the equatorial side of a jetstream.
Where do the maximum winds associated with the jetstream usually occur?
A: In the vicinity of breaks in the tropopause on the polar side of the jet core.
B: Below the jet core where a long straight stretch of the jetstream is located.
C: On the equatorial side of the jestream where moisture has formed cirriform clouds.
Which type jetstream can be expected to cause the greater turbulence?
A: A straight jetstream associated with a high pressure ridge.
B: A jetstream associated with a wide isotherm spacing.
C: A curving jetstream associated with a deep low pressure trough.
Where are jetstreams normally located?
A: In areas of strong low pressure systems in the stratosphere.
B: At the tropopause where intensified temperature gradients are located.
C: In a single continuous band, encircling the Earth, where there is a break
Which primary source contains information regarding the expected weather at the destination airport, at the ETA?
A: Low-Level Prog Chart.
B: Radar Summary and Weather Depiction Charts.
C: Terminal Aerodrome Forecast.
Weather conditions expected to occur in the vicinity of the airport, but not at the airport, are denoted by the letters "VC". When VC appears in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast, it covers a geographical area of:
A: a 5 to 10 statute mile radius from the airport.
B: a 5-mile radius of the center of a runway complex.
C: 10 miles of the station originating the forecast.
Which are the only cloud types forecast in the Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?
A: Altocumulus.
B: Cumulonimbus.
C: Stratocumulus.
What weather is predicted by the term VCTS in a Terminal Aerodrome Forecast?
A: Thunderstorms are expected in the vicinity.
B: Thunderstorms may occur over the station and within 50 miles of the station.
C: Thunderstorms are expected between 5 and 25 miles of the runway complex.
What type turbulence should be reported when it momentarily causes slight, erratic chnages in altitude and/or attitude, one-third to two-thirds of the time?
A: Occasional light chop.
B: Moderate chop.
C: Intermittent light turbulence.
SPECI KGLS 131802Z 10012G21KT 060V140 B 2SM+SHRA SCT005BKN035 OVC050CB24/23 A2980 RMK RAB57 WS TKO RW09L WSHFT 58 FROPA. This SPECI report at Galveston (KGLS) indicates which condition?
A: Wind steady at 100° magnetic at 12 knots, gusts to 21.
B: Precipitation started at 57 after the hour.
C: 5,000 feet overcast with towering cumulus.
METAR KMAF 131756Z 02020KT 12SM BKN025 OVC250 27/18 A3009 RMK RAE44. Which weather condition is indicated by this METAR report at Midland (KMAF)?
A: Rain of unknown intensity ended 16 minutes before the hour.
B: The ceiling was at 25,000 feet MSL.
C: Wind was 020° magnetic at 20 knots.
METAR KSPS 131757Z 09014KT 6SM -RA SCT025 OVC090 24/22 A3005. SPECI KSPS 131820Z 01025KT 3SM +RA FC OVC015 22/21 A3000. Which change took place at Wichita Falls (KSPS) between 1757 and 1820 UTC?
A: The rain became lighter.
B: Atmospheric pressure increased.
C: A funnel cloud was observed
METAR KHRO 131753Z 09007KT 7SM FEW020 BKN040 30/27 A3001. SPECI KHRO 131815Z 13017G26KT 3SM +TSRA SCT020 BKN045TCU 29/24 A2983 RMK RAB12 WS TKO LDG RW14R FRQ LTGICCG VC. What change has taken place between 1753 and 1815 UTC at Harrison (KHRO)?
A: The ceiling lowered and cumulonimbus clouds developed.
B: Thundershowers began at 12 minutes past the hour.
C: Visibility reduced to IFR conditions.
A PROB40 (PROBability) HHhh group in an International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF) indicates the probability of:
A: thunderstorms or other precipitation.
B: precipitation or low visibility.
C: thunderstorms or high wind.
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?
A: Increased stall speed.
B: Increased pitchup tendencies.
C: Increased angle of attack for stalls.
The purpose of diluting ethylene glycol deicing fluid with water in non-precipitation conditions is to:
A: raise the eutectic point.
B: decrease the freeze point.
C: increase the minimum freezing point (onset of crystallization).
Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?
A: Heated Type 1 fluid followed by cold Type 2 fluid.
B: Cold Type 2 fluid followed by hot Type 2 fluid.
C: Heated Type 1 or 2 fluid followed by cold Type 1 fluid.
Which is an effect of ice, snow, or frost formation on an airplane?
A: Increased stall speed
B: Increased pitchdown tendencies
C: Increased angle of attack for stalls
Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluids used for deicing
A: provide ice protection during flight.
B: are intended to provide ice protection on the ground only.
C: on the ground, cause no performance degradation during takeoff.
Test data indicate that ice, snow, or frost having a thickness and roughness similar to medium or coarse sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing can;
A: reduce lift by as much as 40 percent and increase drag by 30 percent.
B: increase drag and reduce lift by as much as 40 percent.
C: reduce lift by as much as 30 percent and increase drag by 40 percent.
Snow on top of deicing or anti-icing fluids:
A: need not be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
B: must be considered as adhering to the aircraft.
C: must be considered as adhering to the aircraft, but a safe takeoff can be made as it will blow off.
The adverse effects of ice, snow, or frost on aircraft performance and flight characteristics include decreased lift and:
A: increased thrust.
B: a decreased stall speed.
C: an increased stall speed.
What is the effect of Freezing Point Depressant (FPD) fluid residue on engine fan or compressor blades?
A: could cause FPD vapors to enter the aircraft but would have no affect on engine thrust or power.
B: It can increase performance and cause stalls or surges.
C: It can reduce engine performance and cause surging and/or compressor stalls.
A calm wind that is forecast, in the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), is encoded as?
A: VRB00KT.
B: 00000KT.
C: 00003KT.
In the International Terminal Aerodrome Forecast (TAF), a variable wind direction is noted by "VRB" where the three digit direction usually appears. A calm wind appears in the TAF as?
A: 00003KT.
B: VRB00KT.
C: 00000KT.
The prevailing visibility in the following METAR is: METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV004 06/05 A2989 RMK AO2 $
A: less than 1/4 statute mile.
B: measured 1/4 statute mile.
C: a mean (average) of 1/4 statute mile.
The VV001 in the following METAR indicates? METAR KFSM 131756Z AUTO 00000KT M1/4SM R25/0600V1000FT -RA FG VV001 A2989 RMK AO2 VIS 3/4 RWY19 CHINO RWY19 $
A: an observer reported the vertical visibility as 100 feet.
B: a 100 foot indefinite ceiling.
C: the variability value is 100 feet.
What is the hijack code?
A: 7200.
B: 7500.
C: 7777.
What airport condition is reported by the tower when more than one wind condition at different positions on the airport is reported?
A: Light and variable.
B: Wind shear.
C: Frontal passage.
What minimum condition is suggested for declaring an emergency?
A: Anytime the pilot is doubtful of a condition that could adversely affect flight safety.
B: When fuel endurance or weather will require an en route or landing priority.
C: When distress conditions such as fire, mechanical failure, or structural damage occurs.
What is a sympton of carbon monoxide poisoning?
A: Rapid, shallow breathing.
B: Pain and cramping of the hands and feet.
C: Dizziness.
Which would most likely result in hyperventilation?
A: A stressful situation causing anxiety.
B: The excessive consumption of alcohol.
C: An extremely slow rate of breathing and insufficient oxygen.
What causes hypoxia?
A: Excessive carbon dioxide in the atmosphere.
B: An increase in nitrogen content of the air at high altitudes.
C: A decrease of oxygen partial pressure.
Which is a common sympton of hyperventilation?
A: Tingling of the hands, legs, and feet.
B: Increased vision keenness.
C: Decreased breathing rate.
Loss of cabin pressure may result in hypoxia because as cabin altitude increases?
A: the percentage of nitrogen in the air is increased.
B: the percentage of nitrogen in the air is decreased.
C: oxygen partial pressure is decreased.
Hypoxia is the result of which of these conditions?
A: Insufficient oxygen reaching the brain.
B: Excessive carbon dioxide in the bloodstream.
C: Limited oxygen reaching the heart muscles.
When making an approach to a narrower-than-usual runway, without VASI assistance, the pilot should be aware that the approach:
A: altitude may be higher than it appears.
B: altitude may be lower than it appears.
C: may result in leveling off too high and landing hard.
The illusion of being in a noseup attitude which may occur during rapid acceleration takeoff is known as?
A: inversion illusion.
B: autokinesis.
C: somatogravic illusion.
In the dark, a stationary light will appear to move when stared at for a period of time. This illusion is known as?
A: somatogravic illusion.
B: ground lighting illusion.
C: autokinesis.
When making a landing over darkened or featureless terrain such as water or snow, a pilot should be aware of the possibility of illusion. The approach may appear to be too?
A: high.
B: low.
C: shallow.
What is the effect of alcohol consumption on functions of the body?
A: Alcohol has anadverse effect, especially as altitude increases.
B: Small amounts of alcohol in the human system increase judgment and decision-making abbilities.
C: Alcohol has little effect if followed by equal quantities of black coffee.
A pilot is more subject to spatial disorientation when?
A: ignoring or overcoming the sensations of muscles and inner ear.
B: eyes are moved often in the process of cross-checking the flight instruments.
C: body sensations are used to interpret flight attitudes.
Which procedure is recommended to prevent or overcome spatial disorientation?
A: Reduce head and eye movement to the greatest possible extent.
B: Rely on the kinesthetic sense.
C: Rely entirely on the indications of the flight instruments.
What is the most effective way to use the eyes during night flight?
A: Look only at far away, dim lights.
B: Scan slowly to permit offcenter viewing.
C: Concentrate directly on each object for a few seconds.
While making prolonged constant rate turns under IFR conditions, an abrupt head movement can create the illusion of rotation on an entirely different axis. This is known as?
A: autokinesis.
B: Coriolis illusion.
C: the leans.
Which flight conditions of a large jet airplane create the most severe flight hazard by generating wingtip vortices of the greatest strength?
A: Heavy, slow, gear and flaps up.
B: Heavy, slow, gear and flaps down.
C: Heavy, fast, gear and flaps down.
Hazardous vortex turbulence that might be encountered behind large aircraft is created only when that aircraft is?
A: developing lift.
B: operating at high airspeeds.
C: using high power settings.
Wingtip vortices created by large aircraft tend to?
A: sink below the aircraft generating the turbulence.
B: rise from the surface to traffic pattern altitude.
C: accumulate and remain for a period of time at the point where the takeoff roll began.
How does the wake turbulence vortex circulate around each wingtip?
A: Inward, upward, and around the wingtip.
B: Counterclockwise when viewed from behind the aircraft.
C: Outward, upward, and around the wingtip.
What effect would a light crosswind have on the wingtip vortices generated by a large airplane that has just taken off?
A: The upwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the downwind vortex.
B: A crosswind will rapidly dissipate the strength of both vortices.
C: The downwind vortex will tend to remain on the runway longer than the upwind vortex.
To avoid the wingtip vortices of a departing jet airplane during takeoff, the pilot should?
A: lift off at a point well past the jet airplane's flightpath.
B: climb above and stay upwind of the jet airplane's flightpath.
C: remain below the flightpath of the jet airplane.
What wind condition prolongs the hazards of wake turbulence on a landing runway for the longest period of time?
A: Direct tailwind.
B: Light quartering tailwind.
C: Light quartering headwind.
If you take off behind a heavy jet that has just landed, you should plan to lift off?
A: prior to the point where the jet touched down.
B: beyond the point where the jet touched down.
C: at the point where the jet touched down and on the upwind edge of the runway.
A person may not act as a crewmember of a civil aircraft if alcoholic beverages have been consumed by that person within the preceding
A: 8 hours.
B: 12 hours.
C: 24 hours.
If a pilot is being radar vectored in IFR conditions and losses radio communications with ATC, what action should be taken?
A: Fly directly to the next point shown on the IFR flight plan and continue the flight.
B: Squawk 7700 and climb to VFR on Top.
C: Fly directly to a fix, route, or airway specified in the vector clearance.
A pilot is holding at an initial approach fix after having experienced two-way radio communications failure. When should that pilot begin descent for the instrument approach?
A: At the EFC time, if this is within plus or minus 3 minutes of the flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
B: At flight plan ETA as amended by ATC.
C: At the EFC time as amended by ATC.
You should advise ATC of minimum fuel status when your fuel supply has reached a state where, upon reaching your destination, you cannot acept any undue delay?
A: This will ensure your priority handling by ATC.
B: ATC will consider this action as if you had declared an emergency.
C: If your remaining usable fuel supply suggests the need for traffic priority to ensure a safe landing, declarean emergency due to low fuel and report fuel remaining in minutes.
Haze can give the illusion that the aircraft is?
A: closer to the runway than it actually is.
B: farther from the runway than it actually is.
C: the same distance from the runway as when there is no restriction to visibility.
Sudden penetration of fog can create the illusion of ?
A: pitching up.
B: pitching down.
C: leveling off.
What illusion, if any, can rain on the windscreen create?
A: Does not cause illusions.
B: Lower than actual.
C: Higher than actual.
To allow pilots of in-trail lighter aircraft to make flight path adjustments to avoid make turbulence, pilots of heavy and large jet aircraft should fly?
A: below the established glidepath and slightly to either side of the on-course centerline.
B: on the established glidepath and on the approach course centerline or runway centerline extended.
C: above the established glidepath and slightly downwind of the on-course centerline.
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