Oral Pharmacology, Prof. Tuy Thel(181-234)

181. Which of the following antibiotics is cross-allergenic with penicillin and should NOT be administered to the penicillin-sensitive patient?

182. The following antibiotics may not be cross-allergenic with penicillin EXCEPT?

183. Which of the following antibiotics shows an incidence of approximately 8% cross-allergenicity with penicillins?

184. Which of the following groups of antibiotics is related both structurally and by mode of action to the penicillins?

185. For the dentist, the most reliable method of detecting a patient's allergy to penicillin is by?

Injecting penicillin intradermally

Taking a thorough medical history

Placing a drop of penicillin on the eye

Having the patient inhale a penicillin aerosol

Injecting a small amount of penicillin intravenously

186. Which of the following antibiotics is the substitute of choice for penicillin in the penicillin-sensitive patient?

Bacitracin

Erythromycin

Tetracycline

Chloramphenicol

187. Most anaphylactic reactions to penicillin occur? 1 . When the drug is administered orally 2 . In patients who have already experienced an allergic reaction to the drug 3 . In patients with a negative skin test to penicillin allergy 4 . When the drug is administered parenterally 5 . Within minutes after drug administration

(1), (2) and (4)

(2), (3) and (4)

(2), (4) and (5)

(1), (2), (3), (4) and (5)

188. Which of the following penicillins has a broader gram-negative spectrum than penicillinG?

189. Which of the following penicillins has the best gram-negative spectrum?

190. Which of the following antibiotics should be considered the drug of choice in the treatment of infection caused by a penicillinase producing staphylococcus?

191. Oral infections caused by organisms that produce penicillinase should be treated with?

192. Which of the following antibiotics is LEAST effective against penicillinase-producing microorganisms?

193. Penicillin's effectiveness against rapidly growing cells is primarily due to its effect on?

194. The probable mechanism of the bacteriostatic action of sulfonamides involves?

Disruption of the cell membrane

Coagulation of intracellular proteins

Reduction in oxygen utilization by the cells

Inhibition of metabolism by binding acetyl groups

Competition with para-aminobenzoic acid in folic acid synthesis

195. The sulfonamides act by?

Suppressing bacterial protein synthesis

Inhibiting the formation of the cytoplasmic bacterial membrane

Inducing the formation of "lethal" bacterial proteins

Inducing a deficiency of folic acid by competition with paraaminobenzoic acid

196. Which antibiotic is able to achieve a higher concentration in bone than in serum?

197. Which of the following antibiotics is most likely to cause liver damage?

198. Which of the following erythromycins associated with an allergic cholestatic hepatitis?

Erythromycin base

Erythromycin stearate

Erythromycin estolate

Erythromycin succinate

199. Which of the following antibiotics is LEAST likely to cause superinfection?

200. Gastrointestinal upset and pseudomembranous colitis has been prominently associated with?

201. Symptoms that may be characterized as allergic manifestations during penicillin therapy are?

Deafness, dizziness and acute anemia

Crystalluria, nausea, vomiting and anaphylactic shock

Oliguria, hematuria, bronchoconstriction and cardiovascular collapse

Dermatitis, stomatitis, bronchoconstriction and cardiovascular collapse

202. Aplastic anemia is a serious toxic effect that occurs particularly after a course of treatment with which of the following antibiotics?

203. Each of the following is a side effect of prolonged tetracycline hydrochloride therapy EXCEPT:?

Suprainfection

Photosensitivity

Vestibular disturbances

Discoloration of newly forming teeth

Gastrointestinal symptoms (when administered orally)

204. Colitis that results following clindamycin therapy is caused by an overgrowth of?

dificile ( Clostridioides difficile )

Staph aureus

Pseudomonas

Candida albicans

205. Which of the following substances is the most effective agent against fungus infections of the mucous membrane?

Nystatin ointment

Undecylenic acid

Polymyxin ointment

Saturated magnesium sulfate

10 percent aluminum chloride solution

206. The most desirable property of an antibiotic when used to treat an odontogenic infection is?

Rapid absorption

Little allergenicity

Ability to achieve and maintain adequate concentrations at the site of infection

Lack of significant binding to plasma proteins

No effects on drug metabolism

207. Nystatin is of greatest clinical usefulness in treating?

viral infections

fungal infections

spirochetal infections

bacterroides infections

penicillin resistant gram positive infections

208. Which of the following drugs chelates with calcium?

209. Which of the following is NOT characteristic of tetracycline antibiotics?

Absorption is impaired when taken with antacids

They predispose to monilial superinfection

They form a stable complex with the developing tooth matrix

They have a low tendency for sensitization, but a high therapeutic index

They are effective substitutes for penicillin prophylaxis against infective endocarditis

210. If your tooth needs pulled, what type of drug would be used?

Analgesic

Anti-inflammatory

Antibiotic

Anesthetic

211. In order to get an infection under control, drugs would be prescribed.?

antibiotic

anti-inflammatory

analgesic

anesthetic

212. The washing of hands must be performed before putting on and after removing gloves because it? 1. Reduces the number of skin bacteria which multiply and cause irritation. 2. Completely eliminates skin bacteria. 3. Minimizes the transient bacteria which could contaminate hands through small pinholes. 4. Allows gloves to slide on easier when the hands are moist.

213. Which of the following is necessary for collagen formation?

214. Which of the following medications increases a patient’s risk for intraoral candidiasis?

215. One of the physiologic functions of adrenal corticosteroids is to?

reduce glycemia.

increase salivation.

promote retention of sodium and fluids.

reduce arterial blood pressure.

increase the immune response to infection.

216. The most appropriate immediate management of a hematoma following a posterior superior alveolar nerve block is to?

incise into the buccal sulcus.

apply firm direct pressure.

aspirate with a wide bore needle.

place hot towels over the cheek.

217. Which of the following drugs inhibits salivary flow?

218. A patient suddenly becomes pale and sweaty after an injection of 4ml of lidocaine 2% with epinephrine l:l00,000. The radial pulse is slow and steady. The respiration is slow. The blood pressure is 80/60. What is the most probable diagnosis?

A toxic reaction to lidocaine.

A toxic reaction to epinephrine.

An allergic reaction to the local anesthetic.

Incipient syncope.

An impending adrenal insufficiency

219. Which of the following is NOT an effect of acetaminophen?

Analgesia.

Anti-inflammatory effect.

Inhibition of CNS cyclooxygenase.

Antipyretic effect.

220. In a patient who is allergic to penicillin, the most appropriate antibiotic to treat an infection of endodontic origin is?

amoxicillin.

azithromycin.

clindamycin.

tetracycline.

221. Which of the following drug groups can cause xerostomia? 1. Diuretics. 2. Antibiotics. 3. Antidepressants. 4. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory agents.

222. Which of the following is a complication of prolonged systemic corticosteroid treatment?

223. Which of the following drugs is(are) used to suppress pain? 1. Benzodiazepines. 2. Barbiturates. 3. Narcotic analgesics.

224. Chronic alcoholism will? 1. Cause impairment of liver function. 2. Increase tendency to hemorrhage. 3. Delay healing. 4. Decrease the effectiveness of local anesthetics.

225. Which of the following lower(s) the body temperature increased by bacterial pyrogens? 1. Acetaminophen. 2. Bradykinin. 3. Acetylsalicylic acid. 4. Codeine.

226. Local anaesthetic In addition with vasoconstrictor like adrenaline provides the following advantages EXCEPT:?

improves the anaesthetic onset

improve the anaesthetic duration

reduces bleeding

decreases the systemic absorption rate of local anaesthetics by reducing the plasma concentration

decreases the effectiveness of local anesthetics

227. Use of nitrous oxide analgesia produces tinnitus as a result of?

increased pressure in the middle ear.

dysphoria.

cochlea effect.

peripheral action on the eardrum.

central nervous system reaction.

228. In achieving hemostasis, external cold application produces?

increased vascular permeability

a transient vasoconstriction

positive chemotaxis

accelerated healing

229. Which of the following drugs induce salivation? 1.Codeine. 2.Atropine. 3.Acetylsalicylic acid. 4.Pilocarpine

(1) (2) (3)

(1) and (3)

(2) and (4)

(4) only

230. Coumadin is?

A. Muscle relaxation.

anticoagulant

amnesia. ភាពភ្លេចភ្លាំង

anticonvulsant action.

analgesia.

231. In regard of prostaglandins, which one is FALSE?

prostaglandins are a group of lipids made at sites of tissue damage or infection

prostaglandins act against infection

they control processes such as inflammation, blood flow, the formation of blood clots

they contribute to the development of the cardinal signs of acute inflammation.

232. pharmacokinetics deals with drug :? 1 .absorption, 2 .distribution, 3 metabolism, 4 excretion,

233. Pharmacodynamics deals with the following EXCEPT?

drug efficacy.

drug receptor occupancy (potency).

drug absorption.

drug interactions.

234. The followings are mechanisms of antibiotic resistant EXCEPT?

Prevention of interaction of the drug with target

Efflux of the antibiotics from the cell

Direct destruction or modification of the compound

Ability to destroy microorganisms

Oral Pharmacology, Prof. Tuy Thel(181-234)

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