KUSTWUDIL POSTUTME PASS QUESTION E-QUIZ

STUDENTS REPRESENTATIVES COUNCIL 
KUSTWUDIL CHAPTER
 
 
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT ICT OFFICER & OFFICE OF THE ELECT ACADEMIC DIRECTOR
STUDENTS REPRESENTATIVES COUNCIL 
KUSTWUDIL CHAPTER
 
 
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT ICT OFFICER & OFFICE OF THE ELECT ACADEMIC DIRECTOR
ENGLISH
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.
 
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
 
 
Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the
following sentence
ENGLISH
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.
 
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
 
 
Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the
following sentence
NOTE !!!
 
 
THE E-TEST IS UNSOLVED, IF YOU HAVE THE SOLVED PASS QUESTION YOU CAN CONTACT THE TECHNICCAL OFFICER THROUGH THE FOLLOWING:
08109566511 WATSAPP ONLY
 
 
SERVED BY YOURS
SEN. ABM-JAGO
NOTE !!!
 
 
THE E-TEST IS UNSOLVED, IF YOU HAVE THE SOLVED PASS QUESTION YOU CAN CONTACT THE TECHNICCAL OFFICER THROUGH THE FOLLOWING:
08109566511 WATSAPP ONLY
 
 
SERVED BY YOURS
SEN. ABM-JAGO
1. In the match against the uplanders team, the sub mariners turned out to be the dark horse
A. Played most brilliantly
B. Played below their usual form
C. Won unexpectedly
D. Lost as expected
E. Won as expected
2. Only the small fry get punished for such social misdemeanors
A. Small boys
B. Unimportant people
C. Frightened people
D. Frivolous people
E. Inexperienced people
3. He spoke with his heart in his mouth
A. courageously
B. With such unusual cowardice
C. With a lot of confusion in his speech
D. Without being able to make up his mind
E. With fright and agitation
4. The leader in today's issue of our popular newspaper focuses on inflation
A. president
B. headline
C. editorial
D. columnist
E. proprieto
5. From the ways my friend talks, you can see he is such a bore
A. rude
B. brilliant
C. uninteresting
D. overbearing
E. humorous
6. His jail terms were to run concurrently
A. simultaneously
B. uniformly
C. laboriously
D. consecutively
E. judiciously
7. There is some obvious symmetry in the whole presentation
A. confusion
B. hesitation
C. excitement
D. orderliness
E. dissatisfaction
8. The bill has to wait as we are now insolvent
A. overworked
B. bankrupt
C. unsettled
D. insoluble
E. affluent
9. All his plans fell through
A. failed
B. Were accomplished
C. Had to be reviewed
D. Were rejected
E. fell
10. The balance sheet at the end of the business year shows that we broke even
A. Lost heavily
B. Made profit
C. Neither lost nor gained
D. Had no money to continue business
E. Were heavily indebted to our bankers
11. He was appointed specifically to put the recruits through
A. Assign them to work
B. Train them
C. Discipline them
D. Assist them at work
E. Supervise them at work
12. The result of his experiment represents a break through in medical science
A. An outstanding success
B. catastrophe
C. An end to such experiments
D. Breaking point
E. A colossal failure
13. Being an optimist, our professor always sees the bright side of most things
A. charming
B. illumined
C. brilliant
D. pleasing
E. cheerful
14. The state government appointed a commission of inquiry to go into the community's complaints carefully and without prejudice
A. investigate
B. search
C. Look for
D. Account for
E. ascertain
15. The traffic situation in Lagos can lead to disastrous consequences; a man lost a very lucrative job because he was held up by it
A. confused
B. delayed
C. annoyed
D. intrigued
E. obstructed
16. Mrs. Dada has been deserted by her husband because he feels she has a heart of stone
A. She has a heavy heart
B. She has little warmth of feeling a strong heart
C. She has a hard heart
D. She is hard hearted
E. She has
17. Mr. Jack could be a successful businessman if he paid more attention to the more intricate aspects of his account
A. Mr Jack will undoubtedly succeed
B. Mr Jack cannot succeed
C. Jack will have a very good chance of succeeding
D. Mr. Jack will find it difficult to succeed
E. Mr Jack will succeed in spite of all odds
18. If my father had not arrived, I would have starved. This sentence means
A. My father did arrive and I didn't starve
B. I had to starve because my father didn't come
C. My father didn't arrive and I didn't starve
D. I should have starved but I didn't
E. I had starved before my father arrived 1
19. The two sprinters were running neck and neck
A. Exact level
B. Very slowly
C. Very fast
D. With their necks together
E. together
20. He stared at her
A. glanced
B. peeped
C. looked
D. gazed
E. fixed
21. When the man was caught by police he presented a bold front
A. He attacked the policemen boldly
B. He walked up to the policemen
C. He faced the situation with apparent boldness
D. He bravely attempted to give them a present
E. He frowned at them in a defiant manner
22. I have been able to observe him at close quarters
A. In government house nearby
B. Within a short space of time
C. In a small family house
D. At close range
E. At regular intervals
23. At the site of the ghastly accident the poor woman's hair stood on end
A. The woman's hair became straight
B. The wind blew her hair upwards
C. The woman was unmoved
D. The woman disarranged her hair
E. The woman was frightened
24. When the beggar was tired he ..... Down by the roadside
A. lied
B. laid
C. layed
D. lay
E. lain
25. He did not like .... Leaving the class early lves
A. we
B. us
C. our
D. ourselves
E. Our selves
26. Before the operation, the dentist found that his patient's teeth....
A. Have long decayed
B. Have long been decayed
C. Have long being decayed
D. Had long decayed
E. Had been decayed
27. The employer, not the salesman and his representative .... Responsible for the loss
A. are
B. Are being
C. Are never
D. Have been
E. is
28. The boy was born before his parents actually got married and so the court has declared him ....
A. illegal
B. illegitimate
C. illicit
D. unlawful
E. untenable
29. As he was still owing me two naira, I was careful not to .... Him any more money
A. lend
B. loan
C. borrow
D. extend
E. credit
30. Complete each of the following sentences by choosing the option that most suitably fills the space; Last week the .... At the theater was the longest I had ever seen
A. assembly
B. congregation
C. convention
D. audience
E. crowd
MATHMATICS
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
MATHMATICS
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
1. A group of market women sell at least one of yam, plantain and maize. 12 of them sell maize, 10 sell yam and 14 sell plantain. 5 sell plantain and maize, 4 sell yam and maize, 2 sell yam and plantain only while 3 sell all the three items. How many women are in the group?
A. 25
B. 19
C. 18
2. If log 10 to base 8 = X, evaluate log 5 to base 8 in terms of X.
A. \(\frac{1}{2}\)X
B. X-\(\frac{1}{4}\)
C. X-\(\frac{1}{3}\)
D. X-\(\frac{1}{2}\)
3. Find the value of X if \(\frac{\sqrt{2}}{x+\sqrt{2}}=\frac{1}{x-\sqrt{2}}\)
A. 3√2+4
B. 3√2-4
C. 3-2√2
D. 4+2√2
4. If \(\frac{(a^2 b^{-3}c)^{\frac{3}{4}}}{a^{-1}b^{4}c^{5}}=a^{p} b^{q} c^{r}\) What is the value of p+2q?
A. (5/2)
B. -(5/4)
C. -(25/4)
D. -10
5. If {(a2b -3c)3/4/a-1b 4c 5 } = apb qc r ; what is the value of p+2q?
A. (5/2)
B. -(5/4)
C. -(25/4)
D. -10
6. A trader bought 100 oranges at 5 for N1.20, 20 oranges got spoilt and the remaining were sold at 4 for N1.50. Find the percentage gain or loss.
A. 30% gain
B. 25% gain
C. 30% loss
D. 25% loss
7. What is the answer when 24346 is divided by 426?
A. 236
B. 356
C. 526
D. 556
8. If 2\(_9\) x (Y3)\(_9\) = 3\(_5\) x (Y3)\(_5\), find the value of Y.
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
9. Simplify \(\sqrt{\frac{(0.0023 \times 750)}{(0.00345 \times 1.25)}}\)
A. 15
B. 20
C. 40
10. If \(m*n = (\frac{m}{n} - \frac{n}{m}\)) for m, n belong to R, evaluate - 3*4
A. \(\frac{-25}{12}\)
B. \(\frac{-7}{12}\)
C. \(\frac{7}{12}\)
D. \(\frac{25}{12}\)
11. The sum of two numbers is twice their difference. If the difference of the numbers is P, find the larger of the two numbers
A. p/2
B. 3p/2
C. 5p/2
D. 3p
12. A binary operation * is defined by a*b = ab+a+b for any real number a and b. If the identity element is zero, find the inverse of 2 under this operation.
A. 2/3
B. 1/2
C. -1/2
D. -2/3
13. Factorize completely \(x^{2} + 2xy + y^{2} + 3x + 3y - 18\).
A. (x+y+6)(x+y-3)
B. (x-y-6)(x-y+3)
C. (x-y+6)(x-y-3)
D. (x+y-6)(x+y+3)
14. Tope bought X oranges at N5.00 each and some mangoes at N4.00 each. If she bought twice as many mangoes as oranges and spent at least N65.00 and at most N130.00, find the range of values of X.
A. 4≤X≤5
B. 5≤X≤8
C. 5≤X≤10
D. 8≤X≤10
15. Three consecutive positive integers k, l and m are such that l\(^2\) = 3(k+m). Find the value of m.
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
16. Express \(\frac{1}{x^{3}-1}\) in partial fractions
A. \(\frac{1}{3}(\frac{1}{x - 1} - \frac{(x + 2)}{x^{2} + x + 1})\)
B. \(\frac{1}{3}(\frac{1}{x - 1} - \frac{x - 2}{x^{2} + x + 1})\)
C. \(\frac{1}{3}(\frac{1}{x - 1} - \frac{(x - 2)}{x^{2} + x + 1})\)
D. \(\frac{1}{3}(\frac{1}{x - 1} - \frac{(x - 1)}{x^{2} - x - 1})\)
17. The first term of a geometric progression is twice its common ratio. Find the sum of the first two terms of the G.P if its sum to infinity is 8.
A. 8/5
B. 8/3
C. 72/25
D. 56/9
18. Divide 4x\(^3\) - 3x + 1 by 2x - 1
A. 2x2 -x+1
B. 2x2 -x-1
C. 2x2+x+1
D. 2x2+x-1
19. Find a positive value of \(\alpha\) if the coordinate of the centre of a circle x\(^2\) + y\(^2\) - 2\(\alpha\)x + 4y - \(\alpha\) = 0 is (\(\alpha\), -2) and the radius is 4 units.
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
20. A man 1.7m tall observes a bird on top of a tree at an angle of 30°. If the distance between the man's head and the bird is 25m, what is the height of the tree?
A. 26.7m
B. 14.2m
C. \(1.7+(25\frac{\sqrt{3}}{3}m\)
D. \(1.7+(25\frac{\sqrt{2}}{2}m\)
21. In ∆MNO, MN = 6 units, MO = 4 units and NO = 12 units. If the bisector of and M meets NO at P, calculate NP.
A. 4.8 units
B. 7.2 units
C. 8.0 units
D. 18.0 units
22. Find the tangent to the acute angle between the lines 2x + y = 3 and 3x - 2y = 5.
A. -7/4
B. 7/8
C. 7/4
D. 7/2
23. From a point P, the bearings of two points Q and R are N670W and N230E respectively. If the bearing of R from Q is N680E and PQ = 150m, calculate PR
A. 120m
B. 140m
C. 150m
D. 160m2
24. Find the equation of the locus of a point P(x,y) such that PV = PW, where V = (1,1) and W = (3,5)
A. 2x + 2y = 9
B. 2x + 3y = 8
C. 2x + y = 9
D. x + 2y = 8
25. Find the area bounded by the curve y = x(2-x). The x-axis, x = 0 and x = 2.
A. 4 sq units
B. 2 sq units
C. \(\frac{4}{3}sq\hspace{1 mm}units\)
D. \(\frac{1}{3}sq\hspace{1 mm}units\)
26. Evaluate: \(\int^{z}_{0}(sin x - cos x) dx \hspace{1mm} Where\hspace{1mm}letter\hspace{1mm}z = \frac{\pi}{4}. (\pi = pi)\)
A. \(\sqrt{2 +1}\)
B. \(\sqrt{2 }-1\)
C. \(-\sqrt{2 }-1\)
D. \(1-\sqrt{2}\)
27. Find the volume of solid generated when the area enclosed by y = 0, y = 2x, and x = 3 is rotated about the x-axis.
A. 81 π cubic units
B. 36 π cubic units
C. 18 π cubic units
D. 9 π cubic units
28. What is the derivative of t2 sin (3t - 5) with respect to t?
A. 6t cos (3t - 5)
B. 2t sin (3t - 5) - 3t2 cos (3t - 5)
C. 2t sin (3t - 5) + 3t2 cos (3t - 5)
D. 2t sin (3t - 5) + t2 cos 3t2
29. Evaluate \(\int^{1}_{-2}(x-1)^{2}dx\)
A. \(\frac{-10}{3}\)
B. 7
C. 9
D. 113
30. Find the value of x for which the function y = x3 - x has a minimum value.
A. \(-\sqrt{3}\)
B. \(-\sqrt{\frac{3}{3}}\)
C. \(\sqrt{\frac{3}{3}}\)
D. \(\sqrt{3}\)
PHYSICS
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.
 
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
PHYSICS
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.
 
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
NOTE !!!
 
 
THE E-TEST IS UNSOLVED, IF YOU HAVE THE SOLVED PASS QUESTION YOU CAN CONTACT THE TECHNICCAL OFFICER THROUGH THE FOLLOWING:
08109566511 WATSAPP ONLY
 
 
SERVED BY YOURS
SEN. ABM-JAGO
NOTE !!!
 
 
THE E-TEST IS UNSOLVED, IF YOU HAVE THE SOLVED PASS QUESTION YOU CAN CONTACT THE TECHNICCAL OFFICER THROUGH THE FOLLOWING:
08109566511 WATSAPP ONLY
 
 
SERVED BY YOURS
SEN. ABM-JAGO
1. The inner diameter of a test tube can be measured accurately using a
A. Micrometer screw guage
B. Pair of dividers
C. Metre rule
D. Pair of vernier calipers
2. Two bodies have masses in the ratio 3:1. They experience forces which impart to them acceleration in the ratio 2:9 respectively. Find the ratio of forces the masses experienced.
A. 1 : 4
B. 2 : 1
C. 2 : 3
D. 2 : 5
3. Particles of mass 10^-2kg is fixed to the tip of a fan blade which rotates with angular velocity of 100rad-1. If the radius of the blade is 0.2m, the centripetal force is
A. 2 N
B. 20 N
C. 200 N
D. 400 N
4. A lead bullet of mass 0.05kg is fired with a velocity of 200ms\(^{-1}\) into a lead block of mass 0.95kg. Given that the lead block can move freely, the final kinetic energy after impact is
A. 50 J
B. 100 J
C. 150 J
D. 200 J
5. A ball of mass 0.1kg is thrown vertically upwards with a speed of 10ms-1 from the top of a tower 10m high. Neglecting air resistance, its total energy just before hitting the ground is (take g = 10ms-2)
A. 5 J
B. 10 J
C. 15 J
D. 20 J
6. A car of mass 800kg attains a speed of 25m/s in 20 secs. The power developed in the engine is
A. 1 . 25 x 104 W
B. 2 . 50 x 104 W
C. 1 . 25 x 106W
D. 2 . 50 x 106 W
7. When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force force on the tyres is
A. Is a disadvantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
B. Is a disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
C. Is an advantage because it is in the direction of the motion of the car
D. Is an advantage because it is in the opposite direction of the motion of the car
8. If the stress on a wire is 107NM-2 and the wire is stretched from its original length of 10.00 cm to 10.05 cm. The young's modulus of the wire is
A. 5 . 0 x 104 Nm-2
B. 5 . 0 x 105 Nm-2
C. 2 . 0 x 108 Nm-2
D. 2 . 0 x 109 Nm-2
9. A solid weigh 10 .00 N in air, 6 N when fully immersed in water and 7 . 0 N when fully immersed in a liquid X. Calculate the relative density of the liquid, X.
A. 5/3
B. 4/3
C. 3/4
D. 7/10
10. When temperature of a liquid increases, its surface tension
A. Decreases
B. Increases
C. Remain Constant
D. Increases then decreases
11. A gas at a volume of V0 in a container at pressure P0 is compressed to one-fifth of its volume. What will be its pressure if the magnitude of its original temperature T is constant?
A. P0/5
B. 4P0/5
C. P0
D. 5P0
12. A piece of substance of specific head capacity 450JKg-1K-1 falls through a vertical distance of 20m from rest. Calculate the rise in temperature of the substance on hitting the ground when all its energies are converted into heat. [g = 10ms-2 ]
A. 2/9°C
B. 4/9°C
C. 9/4°C
D. 9/2°C
13. I. A liquid boils when its saturated vapour pressure is equal to the external pressure II. Dissolved substances in pure water lead to increase in the boiling point. III. When the external pressure is increased, the boiling point increases. IV. Dissolved substances in pure water decrease the boiling point. Which combination of the above are peculiarities of the boiling point of a liquid?
A. I, II and III
B. I, II, III and IV
C. I, II and IV
D. II, III and IV
14. The temperature gradient across a copper rod of thickness 0.02m, maintained at two temperature junctions of 20°C and 80°C respectively is
A. 3.0 x 102Km-1
B. 3.0 x 103Km-1
C. 5.0 x 103Km-1
D. 3.0 x 104Km-1
15. Calculate the mass of ice that would melt when 2kg of copper is quickly transferred from boiling water to a block of ice without heat loss; Specific heat capacity of copper = 400JKg-1K-1 Latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.3 x 105JKg-1
A. 8/33kg
B. 33/80kg
C. 80/33kg
D. 33/8kg
16. The equation of a wave travelling along the positive x-direction is given by; y = 0.25 x 10-3 sin (500t - 0.025x). Determine the angular frequency of the wave motion.
A. 0.25 x 10-3 rad s-1
B. 0.25 x 10-1 rad s-1
C. 5.00 x 102 rad s-1
D. 2.50 x 103 rad s-1
17. If a sound wave goes from a cold air region to a hot air region, its wavelength will
A. increase
B. decrease
C. Decrease then increase
D. Remain constant
18. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40Hz. How many overtones are there between 40hz and 180Hz?
A. 4
B. 3
C. 2
D. 1
19. A man stands 4m in front of a plane mirror. If the mirror is moved 1m towards the man, the distance between him and his new image is
A. 3m
B. 5m
C. 6m
D. 10m
20. The inside portion of part of a hollow metal sphere of diameter 20cm is polished. The portion will therefore form a
A. Concave mirror of focal length 5cm
B. Concave mirror of focal length 10cm
C. Convex mirror of focal length 5cm
D. Convex mirror of focal length 20cm
21. The velocities of light in air and glass are 3.0 x 108ms-1 and 2.0 x 108ms-1 respectively. If the angle of refraction is 30°, the sine of the angle of incidence is
A. 0.33
B. 0.50
C. 0.67
D. 0.75
22. An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the
A. Eye is accommodated
B. Focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece
C. Final image is at the near point of eye
D. Final image is at infinity
23. Which of the following electromagnetic waves is least energetic?
A. Infra-red rays
B. X-rays
C. Ultra-violet rays
D. Gamma rays
24. Steel is more suitable for permanent magnet than iron because the former
A. Is easily demagnetized by shaing vigorously
B. Is an alloy of many metals
C. Is easily magnetized by alternating current through one cycle
D. Retains magnetism more than iron
25. Four cells each of e.m.f 1.5V and internal resistance of 4Ω are connected in parallel. What is the effective e.m.f. And internal resistance of the combination?
A. 6.0V, 16Ω
B. 6.0V, 1Ω
C. 1.5V, 4Ω
D. 1.5V, 1Ω
26. A 3000W electric cooker is to be used on a 200V mains circuit. Which of the fuses below can be used safely with the cooker?
A. 2A
B. 5A
C. 10A
D. 20A
27. A galvanometer has a resistance of 5Ω. By using a shunt wire of resistance 0.05Ω, the galvanometer could be converted to an ammeter capable of reading 2Amp. What is the current through the galvanometer?
A. 2mA
B. 10mA
C. 20mA
D. 25mA
28. In fleming's right-hand rule, the thumb, the forefinger and the middle finger if held mutually at right angles represent respectively, the
A. motion, the field and the induced current
B. Induced current, the motion and the field
C. field, the induced current and the motion
D. Induced current, the field and the motion
29. At what frequency would a 10H inductor have a reactance of 2000Ω?
A. π/200Hz
B. π/100Hz
C. 100/πHz
D. 100πHz
30. The core of an efficient transformer should consist of laminated pieces of metal in order to
A. Increase the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
B. Increase the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
C. Reduce the heat produced by increasing the eddy current
D. Reduce the heat produced by reducing the eddy current
 
CHEMISTRY
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.
 
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
 
CHEMISTRY
 
OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.
 
KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION
1. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. The average kinetic energy of a gas is directly proportional to its temperature
B. At constant temperature, the volume of a gas increases as the pressure increases
C. The pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume
D. The temperature of a gas is directly proportional to its volume E. The collisions of molecules with each other are inelastic
2. Zinc Oxide is a eactive Oxide
A. Basic Oxide
B. Acidic Oxide
C. Amphoteric Oxide
D. Neutral Oxide E. R
3. When sodium chloride and metallic sodium are each dissolved in water
A. Both processes are exothermic
B. Both processes are endothermic
C. The dissolution of metallic sodium is endothermic
D. The dissolution of metallic sodium is exothermic
E. The dissolution of sodium chloride is explosive
4. The periodic classification of elements is an arrangement of the elements in order of their
A. Atomic Weights
B. Isotopic Weights
C. Molecular Weights
D. Atomic Numbers
E. Atomic Masses
5. In the reaction between sodium hydroxide and sulphuric acid solutions, what volume of 0.5 molar sodium hydroxide would exactly neutralise 10cm3 of 1.25 molar sulphuric acid?
A. 5cm3
B. 10cm3
C. 20cm3
D. 25cm3
E. 50cm3
6. A small quantity of solid ammonium chloride (NH4Cl) was heated gently in a test tube, the solid gradually disappears to produce two gases. Later, a white cloudy deposit was observed on the cooler part of the test tube. The ammonium chloride is said to have undergone
A. distillation
B. sublimation
C. precipitation
D. evaporation
E. decomposition
7. Elements P, Q, R, S have 6, 11, 15, 17 electrons respectively, therefore,
A. P will form an electrovalent bond with R
B. Q will form a covalent bond with S
C. R will form an electrovalent bond with S
D. Q will form an electrovalent bond with S
E. Q will form a covalent bond with R
8. An element X forms the following compounds with chlorine; XCl4, XCl3, XCl2. This illustrates the
A. Law of multiple proportions
B. Law of chemical proportions
C. Law of simple proportions
D. Law of conservation of mass
E. Law of definite proportions
9. The oxidation state of chlorine in potassium chlorate is
A. +1
B. +2
C. +3
D. +5
E. +7
10. When air which contains the gases Oxygen, nitrogen, carbondioxide, water vapour and the rare gases, is passed through alkaline pyrogallol and then over quicklime, the only gases left are;
A. Nitrogen and carbondioxide
B. The rare gases
C. Nitrogen and oxygen
D. Nitrogen and the rare gases
E. nitrogen, carbondioxide and the rare gases
11. When heat is absorbed during a chemical reaction, the reaction is said to be
A. thermodynamic
B. exothermic
C. isothermal
D. endothermic
E. thermostatic
12. When large hydrocarbon molecules are heated at high temperature in the presence of a catalyst to give smaller molecules, the process is known as
A. disintegration
B. polymerization
C. cracking
D. degradation
E. distillation
13. The pH of four solutions W, X, Y, Z are 4, 6, 8, 10 respectively, therefore
A. None of these solutions is acidic
B. The pH of Y is made more acidic by addition of distilled water
C. Z is the most acidic solution
D. W is the most acidic solution
E. X is neutral
14. When each of the nitrates of Potassium, Magnesium and iron is heated,
A. All the nitrates decompose to their oxides
B. The nitrate of magnesium gives the nitrite and oxygen
C. The nitrates of iron magnesium and iron give the oxides
D. The nitrate of iron gives the nitrite and oxygen
E. The nitrate of the magnesium is not decomposed
15. Which of the following metals cannot replace hydrogen from water or steam?
A. Sodium
B. Magnesium
C. Iron
D. Calcium
E. Copper
16. A sample of hard water contains some calcium sulphate and calcium hydrogen carbonate. The total hardness may therefore be removed by
A. Boiling the water
B. Adding excess calcium hydroxide
C. Adding a calculated amount of calcium hydroxide
D. Adding sodium carbonate
E. Adding magnesium hydroxide
17. During the electrolysis of copper II sulphate between platinum electrodes, if litmus solution is added to the anode compartment,
A. The litmus turns blue but no gas is evolved
B. The litmus turns blue and oxygen is evolved
C. The litmus turns blue and hydrogen is evolved
D. The litmus turns red and oxygen is evolved
E. The litmus turns red and then becomes colourless
18. The reaction between an organic acid and an alcohol in the presence of an acid catalyst is known as;
A. saponification
B. dehydration
C. esterification
D. hydrolysis
E. hydration
19. The IUPAC names of the compounds CH3COOH and CH2=CH2 are respectively;
A. Acetic acid and ethene
B. Methanoic acid and ethene
C. Methanoic acid and ethylene
D. Ethanol and ethene
E. Acetic acid and ethylene
20. If 30cm3 of oxygen diffuses through a porous pot in 7 seconds, how long will it take 60cm3 of chlorine to diffuse through the same pot, if the vapour densities of oxygen and chlorine are 16 and 36 respectively?
A. 9.3 sec
B. 14 sec
C. 21 sec
D. 28 sec
E. 30.3 sec
21. Brass and bronze are both metallic alloys. Which of the following constituents is common to both alloys?
A. Tin
B. Zinc
C. Copper
D. Lead
E. Aluminium
22. Which of the following gases may not be dried with concentrated sulphuric acid?
A. HCl
B. N2
C. Cl2
D. SO2
E. NH3
23. Which of the following reactions does not take place in the smelting of iron in a blast furnace?
A. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g)
B. C(s) + O2(g) CO2(g)
C. 3FeCO(s) + 2OCO2(g) FeO4(s)
D. SiO2(s) + CaO(s) CaCO3(s)
E. CO2(g) + C(s) 2CO(g)
24. Which of the following is not a member of the homologous series of the paraffins (alkanes)?
A. C3H8
B. C5H12
C. C7H16
D. C15H32
E. C24H48
25. When ammonia and hydrogen ion bond together to form ammonium ion, the bond formed is called
A. Ionic bond
B. Electrovalent bond
C. Covalent bond
D. co-ordinate bond
E. Hydrogen bond
26. An example of an alcohol is
A. CCl4
B. CH3COOH
C. CHCl3
D. C2H6
E. CH3OH
27. The nucleus of an atom contains
A. Protons only
B. Neurons only
C. Protons and electrons
D. Neutrons and electrons
E. Protons and neutrons
28. Hypochlorous acid is used as a bleach because
A. It is a strong acid
B. It yields chlorine readily in pure water
C. It is an oxidising agent
D. It is a weak acid
E. It is a reducing agent
29. The normal boiling point of a liquid is defined as
A. The temperature at which its vapour pressure equals the atmospheric pressure
B. The temperature at which bubbles begin to form
C. The temperature at which the vapour pressure equals 1 temperature
D. The temperature at which the rate of condensation of vapour equals the rate of vaporisation of the liquid
E. The temperature at which the space above the liquid is saturated
30. Which of the following compounds will form a solution if exposed to air?
A. Na2CO3.10H2O
B. NaNO3
C. CuSO4
D. CaCl2
E. Na2SO4.10H2O
BIOLOGY
BIOLOGY
1. A plant which grows on another plant without apparent harm to the host plant is called
A. A parasite
B. An epiphyte
C. A saprophyte
D. A predator
E. A hermaphrodite
2. Given the equation: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 {Under sunlight & Chlorophyll) The process represented by the above equation is
A. proteinsynthesis
B. respiration
C. photosynthesis
D. transpiration
E. translocation
3. Given the equation: 6CO2 + 6H2O → C6H12O6 + 6O2 {Under sunlight & Chlorophyll) The oxygen given off during the above process is derived from
A. sunlight
B. chlorophyll
C. Carbon dioxide
D. atmosphere
E. water
4. One of the function of xylem is 
A. Strengthening the stem
B. Manufacturing food
C. Reducing loss of water
D. Conducting manufactured food
E. Storing unused sugar
5. People suffering from myopia
A. Can see near object clearly
B. Can see far away object clearly
C. Cannot see any object clearly
D. Are colour blind
E. Are able to see clearly in the dark
6. The cilia in paramecium are use for
A. respirating
B. locomotion
C. protection
D. Regulating food intake
E. excretion
7. Euglena may be classified as a plant because it
A. Has chloroplast
B. Has a gullet
C. Lives in a pond
D. Possesses a flagellum
E. Has pellicle
8. A trawler on a fishing trip caught a type of animal with hairs on its body. This animal could have been
A. An amphibian
B. A reptile
C. A shark
D. A mammal
E. A seagull
9. Which of these type of skeleton is most appropriate for a cockroach?
A. Hydrostatic skeleton
B. Exoskeleton
C. Endoskeleton
D. Cartilaginous skeleton
E. Bony skeleton
10. When protein are broken down they provide
A. oxygen
B. carbonhydrate
C. energy
D. amino-acid
E. Carbon dioxide
11. The function of lenticels is
A. To remove excess water in plant
B. To absorb water from the atmosphere
C. For gaseous exchange
D. To absorb light
E. To store food
12. The following events take place during conjugation in spirogyra 1. The protoplasm of each of the conjugating cell separate from the cell wall to form a Gamete; the gamete of one filament passes through the conjugation tube to meet the gamete of the other filament 2. The zygote soon become surrounded by thick brown wall to become zygospore which burst after a short rest and germinate to produce a new filament 3. The nuclei of the gametes fuse to form a zygote 4. The protuberance meet and where they touch the cell-wall disappear so that a conjugation tube joining the two cell is formed 5. Protuberance appear on the wall of the cell of two filament of spirogyra lying side by side opposite one another. Now what is the correct sequence in which the above sequence occur?
A. 1,2,3,4,5
B. 1,2,4,5,3
C. 3,4,5,2,1
D. 5,4,1,3,2
E. 5,4,3,1,2
13. Which of the following is a characteristic of animal cell?
A. Presence of chloroplast
B. Possession of cellulose cell-wall
C. Absence of large vacuoles
D. Presence of large vacuoles
E. Presence of chromosome
14. Nitrifying bacteria keep the soil fertile by
A. Converting nitrate to nitrogen
B. Converting ammonium salt to nitrate
C. Converting atmospheric nitrogen to plant nitrogen
D. Converting nitrate to nitrous oxide
E. Converting atmospheric nitrogen to nitrates
15. In the life history of schistosoma (Bilharzia), one of the following is intermediate host
A. man
B. snail
C. Mosquito larva
D. crayfish
E. fish
16. In which of the following groups of organisms do all the members have asexual method of reproduction?
A. A geen filament algae, a flowering plant and a bird
B. A toad (or frog) , ameoba and mucor ( penicillium)
C. A flowering plant, tape worm (or ascaris) and a green filamentous algae
D. Mucor (or penicillium), a bird and a toad (or frog)
E. Ameoba, mucor (or penicillium ) and a green filamentous algae
17. The hormone which tones up the muscles of a person in time of danger is from the
A. Thyroid gland
B. pancreas
C. Adrenal gland
D. liver
E. spleen
18. The study of organism and the environment of an abandoned farmland is the ecology of?
A. A community
B. A population
C. A specie
D. A habitat
E. An ecosystem
19. A potometer with a leafy shoot weighed 18.9g initially and weighed 17.9g after one hour. From this it follow that
A. The shoot absorbed 1g of water per hour
B. 1g of water per hour evaporates from the potometer
C. The shoot lost 1g of water per hour
D. The potometer water receded at the rate of 1g per hour
E. The shoot was respiring and lost weight at rate of 1g per hour
20 At fertilization
A. One chromosome from the male joins another from the female
B. One gene from the male combines with another from the female
C. The male nucleus fuses with the female nucleus
D. One set of chromosome combines with another set from the female
21. The neck region of the tape worm, (taenia) is responsible for the
A. Production of egg
B. Storage of egg
C. Formation of new segment
D. Development of the suckers
E. Fragmentaion of the body segment
22. Which of these is not true of the insect? The possession of
A. Two pairs of antennae
B. Jointed appendages
C. exoskeleton
D. Three pairs of legs
E. Segmented body
23. Rhizopus (or mucor)obtain its food from dead organic matter extracellularly. It is said to be
A. A facultative parasite
B. saprophyte
C. An obligate parasite
D. A commensal
E. An autotroph
24. The feature that distinguish the toad or frog from the fish is the absence of
A. scales
B. lungs
C. Paired appendages
D. A tail
E. Skin glands
25. Which of these is not associated with tadpole stages of toad or frog
A. V-shaped gland
B. operculum
C. External gills
D. jelly
E. shell
26. Which of these is not associated with the movement of the toad, reptile or bird?
A. Hopping
B. Bopping
C. Flapping
D. Gliding
E. Pecking
27. Which of these is not a part of the feather of a bird?
A. Wing
B. aftershaft
C. Inferior umblilicus
D. Vane
E. Barbule
28. Which of these is not a function of the mammalian skin/ 
A. Protection against bacteria infection
B. Excretion of waste and water
C. Production of vitamin d when exposed to sun light
D. Production of pigments to reduce temperature
E. Regulation of body temperature
29. Which of these elements in plants is required in small quantities only
A. Boron
B. Nitrogen
C. Phosphorus
D. Magnesium
E. Potassium
30. A potometer was used to compare the rate of loss of the same volume of water from a plant under different environmental conditions as under a fan, at the sea shore, under the sun, in the airy laboratory and in cupboard. What time was likely to have been obtained in a cupboard?
A. 15 secs
B. 30secs
C. 25secs
D. 20secs
E. 28secs
GEOGRAPHY
GEOGRAPHY
1. Which of the following phenomena is not directly related to the revolution of the earth?
A. Seasonal changes
B. Varrying duration of sunshine hours
C. Unequal solar radiation on the earth's surface
D. Night and day
E. The tropics
2. Which pair of activities would you NOT find in an equatorial climate? 1. Commercial grain farming. 2. Rice cultivation. 3. lumbering. 4. Plantation agriculture. 5. Dry farming
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 5
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 5
E. 2 and 3
3. Inter-regional trade between countries in West Africa is promoted mainly by
A. Relationship with former colonial rulers
B. Production of similar goods
C. Deliberate government policies in recent times
D. Competition among the nations in Africa E. Frequent changes in government of different countries
4. Which statement is NOT true of the middle belt in Nigeria?
A. The soil is not productive
B. The population is sparse
C. Non of the above
5. Which of the following zones is the least industrialized in Nigeria?
A. Lokoja-Ajaokuta
B. Lagos-Ikeja
C. Port harcourt-Aba
D. Kaduna-Zaria
E. Abeokuta-Ibadan
6. Which purpose is NOT served by the Kainji Dam?
A. Provision of research facilities
B. Provision of water of domestic use all over Nigeria
C. Provision of fishing facilities
D. Generation of electricity for use all over Nigeria
E. Provision of recreational facilities
7. What is the Nile valley best known for?
A. Industrial development
B. Water navigation
C. Commerce
D. Development
E. Hydro-electricity
8. Which is not exported by the Republic of South Africa?
A. Wines
B. Maize
C. Wool
D. Coffee
E. Wheat
9. Name the most important industrial mineral of Ghana
A. Diamond
B. Bauxite
C. Manganese
D. Gold
E. Aluminium
10. Which of the following factors least explains the fast growing population in Africa?
A. Control of diseases
B. Decline in death rate
C. The education of women
D. Improvement in transportation
E. Provision of more hospitals
11. If a map at a scale of 1:50,000 is reduced by half, what is the new scale of the map?
A. 1:250,000
B. 1:25,000
C. 1:200,000
D. 1:100,000
E. 1:125,000
12. Which of the following most accurately describe the climate of coast lands which are adjacent to cool ocean currents?
A. Summer rain, winter drought
B. Winter rain, summer drought
C. Rain all the year round
D. Monsoon rainfall pattern
E. aridity
13. How were the major mountain belts of the world produced?
A. By wind erosion
B. By Folding
C. By glacial erosion
D. By weathering
E. By river deposition
14. Which of the following factors must account for the rapid increase in world population during the twentieth century?
A. The slave trade was abolished
B. Death rates have decreased rapidly
C. Birth rates have increased rapidly
D. Increasing world production of food
E. Large-scale migration of people
15. What does subsistence agriculture mean?
A. Intensive agriculture
B. Extensive agriculture
C. Agricultural production for cash
D. Agricultural production for export
E. Agricultural production for household consumption
16. Which of the following type of agriculture would you expect to find around a big city in an industrial society such as in Europe?
A. Dairy farming
B. Grain farming
C. Fish farming
D. Animal husbandry
E. Intensive subsistence agriculture
17. Which of the following provides the best location for a bakery?
A. Near a regular source of flour
B. In an area of cheap labour
C. Near a large market for bread
D. Near a source of good clean water
E. Near a regular source of electricity
18. The greatest volume of shipping across the Atlantic Ocean is
A. between Africa and South America
B. between Africa and North America
C. between North America and South America
D. between Europe and North America
E. between Europe and Africa
19. Which of the following towns is NOT a pre-colonial town?
A. Ilorin
B. Bida
C. Enugu
D. Ibadan
E. Kano
20. Which of the following has the highest mean annual rainfall?
A. Freetown
B. Accra
C. Lome
D. Lagos
E. Enugu
21. The Middle Best of West Africa is NOT characterized by one of the following. Which one?
A. Low population densities
B. Ethnic fragmentation
C. Few large towns
D. Much export crop production
E. Predominance of subsistence agriculture
22. Which ONE of the following statements about the railway lines of Africa is false?
A. There is no trans-continental railway in Africa which can be compared with the Trans-Siberian Railway in length or importance
B. Africa's railway lines are all of uniform gauge
C. Few railway lines in Africa cross from one country to another
D. The railway lines of Africa generally run from the coast inland
E. The densest railway network in Africa is in the Republic of South Africa
23. Which one of the following countries has an export trade which is dominated by a single mineral?
A. Central Africa Empire
B. Uganda
C. Kenya
D. Zambia
E. Mozambique
24. A World Title Boxing contest took place in New York (75°W time zone) on a Tuesday between 21:30 and 22:30 Hours and was televised live. When did viewers in Lagos (15°E time zone) watch the contest live on television?
A. Wednesday between 03:30 and 04:30 Hours
B. Monday between 03:30 and 04:30 Hours
C. Tuesday between 15:30 and 16:30 Hours
D. Tuesday between 21:30 and 22:30 Hours
E. Tuesday between 02:30 and 03:30 Hours
25. Which of the following currents has a warming influence upon the coast along which it flows?
A. Mozambique current
B. Labrador current
C. Benguela current
D. Canaries current
E. Humboldt current
26. Which of the following lakes owes its origin mainly to faulting?
A. Lake Chad
B. Lake Superior
C. Lake Malawi
D. Lake Victoria
E. lake Kariba
27. The wearing away of the sides and bottom of a river's channel is called
A. Hydraulic action
B. corrosion
C. attrition
D. corrasion
E. solution
28. Temperature is to isotherms as air pressure is to
A. isopleths
B. contours
C. isobars
D. isolines
E. isohyets
29. Which of the following gradients is the steepest?
A. 1 in 134
B. 1 in 351
C. 1 in 531
D. 1 in 315
E. 1 in 153
30. In which of the following countries is commercial grain farming an important occupation?
A. Nigeria
B. Kenya
C. Spain
D. Canada
E. Brazil
NOTE !!!
 
THE E-TEST IS SOLVED, WITH THE EXCEPTION OF MATHMATICS PLS BEAR WITH US, YOU CAN CONTACT THE TECHNICAL OFFICER THROUGH THE FOLLOWING:
08109566511 WATSAPP ONLY
 
SERVED BY YOURS
SEN. ABM-JAGO
{"name":"KUSTWUDIL POSTUTME PASS QUESTION E-QUIZ", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"STUDENTS REPRESENTATIVES COUNCIL  KUSTWUDIL CHAPTER       OFFICE OF THE ELECT ICT OFFICER & OFFICE OF THE ELECT ACADEMIC DIRECTOR, ENGLISH   OFFICE OF THE ELECT S R C ACADEMIC DIRECTOR IN COLLABORATION WITH THE OFFICE OF THE ELECT I.C.T OFFICER 1.   KIBIYA ADMINISTRATION     Choose the option that best conveys the meaning of the underlined portion in the following sentence, NOTE !!!     THE E-TEST IS UNSOLVED, IF YOU HAVE THE SOLVED PASS QUESTION YOU CAN CONTACT THE TECHNICCAL OFFICER THROUGH THE FOLLOWING: 08109566511 WATSAPP ONLY     SERVED BY YOURS SEN. ABM-JAGO","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
Make your own Survey
- it's free to start.