5DD/Anesthesia/Dr.Em Savoeun

1.      The most frequent medical emergency in the dental office is?
myocardial infarction
syncope
respiratory arrest
allergic reactions
Coma
2.      A patient is administered an oral antibiotic one hour before their appointment. They now complain of difficulty breathing, with rash and itching of their skin. Their blood pressure is 80/40 and the pulse is 120. What is the most likely problem and treatment would do?
hyperventilation syndrome; rebreathing carbon dioxide
allergic / anaphylactic reaction; epinephrine subcutaneous
diabetic ketoacidosis; insulin
pulmonary edema; oxygen
asthma attack; nebulization
3.      Thiopental eKeRbIR)as;kñúgsN+M sMrab;mnusScas;kñúgkMhab; ³?
1%
2%
2.5%
3%
3.5%
4.      etI techniques in managing airway obstruction NaxøHEdlRtwmRtUv ?
Chin tilt
Extension of neck
Anterior displacement of mandible
Use of airway adjuncts (oral and nasal airway)
All of the above
5.      Thiopental គេប្រើប្រាស់ក្នុងសណ្ដំ សំរាប់មនុស្សចាស់ក្នុងកំហាប់?
1%
2%
2.5%
3%
3.5%
6.      What is anesthesiology?
A branch of science which deals with the study of anesthesia
A branch of science which deals with the study of pain killer
A branch of science which deals with the study of loss of consciousness
A branch of science which deals with the study of pain
A branch of science which deals with the study of pain and loss of consciousness
7.      Rotterstein (1864) used ethyl chloride for?
General anesthesia (by IV injection) and Local anesthesia (through topical application)
Local anesthesia (through topical application)
General anesthesia (by sniffing) and Local anesthesia (through topical application)
Lumbar anesthesia
Local anesthesia through injection hypodermic
8.      What is anesthesia?
Condition wherein the patient loss of consciousness
Condition wherein patient is still awake (conscious)
The elimination of all sensation, accompanied by the loss of consciousness
Condition wherein there is loss modalities of sensation
Condition wherein there is loss of movement
9.      Who is introduced the “intracheal tube”?
Colton (1863)
Macerven of Scotland (1878)
S. S. White Mfg. Co. (1867)
Frederick Hewitt of England (1890)
Horace Wells
10.  Who is the first man demonstrated the mandibular block technique (inferior alveolar nerve block) with use of 4% cocaine solution, to anesthetize the mandibular nerve?
Von Anrep
Bier
Horace Wells
Potain
Dr. Halsted
11.  Who is the first man to introduced GA in dentistry?
Dr. Alfred Einhorn
Heinrich Braun
Horace Wells
Souberian (1831)
Dr. Halsted
12.  Intravenous Regional Anaesthesia was described by?
Macintosh
Magill
Guedel
Bains
Bier
13.  The first public demonstration of anesthesia was by ?
John snow
Thomas morton
H.G. Wells
Magill
Guedel
14.  Ether was invented by ?
Morton
Priestly
Wells
Simpson
15.  Nitrous oxide was discovered by:?
J.B.Priestly
Humphry Davy
Horace wells
P.C.Barton
G.Q. cotton
16.  The most frequent medical emergency in the dental office is:?
myocardial infarction
syncope
respiratory arrest
allergic reactions
Coma
17.  In an emergency, the best place to check the pulse is the:?
carotid artery
brachial artery
radial artery
femoral artery
Ulnar artery
18.  A 17-year-old anxious female suddenly develops shortness of breath, appears cyanotic around the mouth, and is audibly wheezing. What are the most likely problem and treatment?
allergic reaction; epinephrine subcutaneous (SQ)
angina; nitroglycerin sublingually
asthma; use of her inhaler
syncope; lying patient flat and elevating legs
Pneumonia
19.  A conscious patient is unable to breathe or talk. When you ask if they are choking, they nod their head. You should administer:?
oxygen
four back blows
fifteen chest compressions
X-Ray thoracic
abdominal thrusts
20.  Mrs. Smith, a 57-year-old diabetic, is having extensive bridgework completed during her lunch break appointment. She begins acting strangely, her pulse is rapid, and her skin is pale, cool, and clammy. What is her problem and with what you treat her?
asthma; puff from her inhaler
hypoglycemia; oral sugar
angina; nitroglycerin
stroke; oxygen
hyperglycemia; insulin therapy
21.  The medication most often used to relieve angina pain is:?
Nitroglycerin
Dilantin®
Epinephrine
Insulin
Antibiotics
22.  A patient is administered an oral antibiotic one hour before their appointment. They now complain of difficulty breathing, with rash and itching of their skin. Their blood pressure is 80/40 and the pulse is 120. What is the most likely problem and treatment would do?
hyperventilation syndrome; rebreathing carbon dioxide
allergic / anaphylactic reaction; epinephrine subcutaneous (SQ)
diabetic ketoacidosis; insulin
pulmonary edema; oxygen
asthma attack; nebulization
23.  An older patient becomes restless during treatment. He seems unable to move one arm and his speech is slurred. He may be having:?
cerebrovascular accident/transient ischemia attack
acute myocardial infarction
angina pectoris
epileptic seizure
acido-cetosis
24.  During an episode of hyperventilation, the patient is losing too much:?
oxygen
nitrogen
hydrogen
carbon mono-oxide
carbon dioxide
25.  A patient who complains of chest pain should be positioned:?
supine
seated with legs elevated
on their side
on their lateral security position
in a comfortable sitting position
26.  Which of the following is correct concerning anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions?
Anaphylactoid reactions are mediated by IgE.
Anaphylactic reactions occur on the first exposure to the allergen.
Endogenous histamine release occurs only during an anaphylactoid reaction.
They are clinically indistinguishable.
27.  ក្នុងចំណោមថ្នាំខាងក្រោមនេះ តើថ្នាំណាខ្លះដែលគេប្រើប្រាស់សំរាប់ Inhalational induction?
Sevoflurane and Halothane
Isoflurane, and Halothane
Nitrous Oxide (N2O) and Enflurane
Enflurane and Sevoflurane
Halothane and Enflurane
28.  Thiopental គេប្រើប្រាស់ក្នុងសណ្ដំ សំរាប់មនុស្សចាស់ក្នុងកំហាប់?
1%
2%
2.5%
3%
3.5%
29.  The agonists of opioids were:?
Morphine, Sufentanil, Fentanyl
Fentanyl, Nalbuphine, Morphine
Nalbuphine, Sufentanil, Fentanyl
Nalorphine, Nalorphine, Morphine
Nalorphine, Sufentanil, Fentanil
30.  Ketamine ជាថ្នាំដែលមាន effects ដូចខាងក្រោម?
Bronchodilatation, Increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), Increase intra-cranial pressure (ICP)
Bronchoconstriction, increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure
Bronchoconstriction, decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure
Bronchodilatation, decrease cerebral blood flow (CBF), increase intra-cranial pressure
Increase cerebral blood flow (CBF), bronchodilatation, decrease intra-cranial pressure
31.  Concerning to pharmacodynamique of nitrous oxide:?
Produces analgesia in central nervous system(CNS)
Concentrations less than 60% may produce amnesia
Heart rate and BP are usually mild changed
No respiratory depressant
Can be used without oxygen
32.  Concerning the following inhalation anesthetics which one that no effect on the systemic vascular resistance (SVR) when increasing the minimum alveolar concentration (MAC)?
Halothane
Isoflurane
Desflurane
Sevoflurane
Enflurane
33.  Which one the best intravenous anesthetics use in the severe hypotension in hypovolemic or shock patients?
Thiopental
Propofol
Ketamine
Etomidate
Methohexital
34.  The optimal intravenous anesthetics can be used both induction and maintenance is:?
Thiopental
Propofol
Thiamylal
Etomidate
Methohexital
35.  The antidote of benzodiazepines is:?
Atropine
Flumazenil
-blockage
Calcium gluconate
Naloxone
36.  Opium was used for thousands of years to produce:?
Euphoria
Analgesia
Sedation
Relief from diarrhoea
All of the above
37.  What is the pure agonist?
It has affinity for binding plus efficacy
It has affinity for binding but no efficacy
It produces an agonist effect at one receptor and an antagonist effect at another
It has affinity for binding but low efficacy
All of the above are wrong
38.  What is the Mixed Agonist-Antagonist?
It has affinity for binding plus efficacy
It has affinity for binding but no efficacy
It produces an agonist effect at one receptor and an antagonist effect at another
It has affinity for binding but low efficacy
All of the above are wrong
39.  What is the Pure Antagonist?
It has affinity for binding plus efficacy
It has affinity for binding but no efficacy
It produces an agonist effect at one receptor and an antagonist effect at another
It has affinity for binding but low efficacy
All of the above are wrong
40.  All of these opioids have short onset and duration of action are frequently used during General Anesthesia. Which are they?
Fentanyl, Sufentanil
Nalorphine, Sufentanil
Nalbuphine, Sufentanil
Morphine, Pethidine
Pentazocine, Butorphanol
41.  One of the following opioids can cause tachycardia which one?
Morphine
Meperidine
Fentanil
Sufentanil
Alfentanil
42.  One of the following opioids can cause histamine release which one?
Morphine
Fentanil
Sufentanil
Alfentanil
Pentazocine
43.  Succinyl choline is a muscle relaxant which act by?
persistent depolarisation
competitive blockade
mechanism of action uncertain
persistent depolarisation and competitive blockade
None of the proposition
44.  Site of-action of anaesthetic muscle relaxants is?
Myoneural junction
central
ascending reticular activating system
Red nucleus
Smooth muscles
45.  The muscle relaxant effect of succinylcholine last for ?
1 minute
2 minutes
3 to 5 minutes
10 minutes
30 minutes
46.  Which of the following are not antagonists of non-depolarizing muscle relaxants?
Neostigmine
Edrophoium
Pyridostigmine
Cyclopyronium
47.  Which is not true of Non-depolarizing skeletal muscle relaxant?
causes Histamine release
Hypothermia
fasciculation of muscle
ganglion blockade
Have reversed drugs
48.  Non-depolarizing relaxants may be reversed by?
Atropine
succinyl choline
neostigmine
Calcium chloride
Naloxone
49.  A young boy undergoes eye surgery under day case anesthesia with succinyl choline and propofol and after 8 hours he starts walking and develops muscle pain. What is the likely cause?
Early mobilization
Due to the effects of eye surgery
Succinyl choline
Propofol
50.  Rapid termination of the action of Suxamethonium is due to ?
Rapid renal elimination
Enzymatic degradation by pseudocholinesterase
Metabolized by liver to acetyl CoA
Redistribution
51.  A 72-year-old man who has just received midazolam for an endoscopic procedure of the upper gastrointestinal tract. Sedation is easily antagonized by flumazenil. Although the endoscopist asks to send the patient home in one hour, why should this patient remain hospitalized for observation?
Flumazenil has low affinity for benzodiazepine receptors
Flumazenil has moderate intrinsic agonist activity
Late onset seizure is likely
Midazolam has a longer duration of action than flumazenil
52.  Hypotension is LEAST likely to occur following induction with which of the following anesthetic agents?
Etomidate
Methohexital
Midazolam
Propofol
53.  Each of the following drugs causes enhanced activity of the gamma-aminobutyric acid receptor EXCEPT:?
Etomidate.
Ketamine.
Midazolam.
Propofol.
54.  A new intravenous anesthetic is found to have a very large volume of distribution. This drug is most likely to have which of the following properties?
Hydrophilic with a high degree of plasma protein binding
Hydrophilic with a large nonionized fraction
Hydrophilic with a low degree of tissue protein binding
Lipophilic with a high degree of tissue protein binding
55.  Which of the following conditions is NOT associated with up-regulation of the post-junctional acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction?
Burn injuries
Myasthenia gravis
Prolonged bed rest
Prolonged use of neuromuscular blocking agents
56.  តើ parameters ណាខ្លះដែលគេប្រើប្រាស់សំរាប់អ្នកជំងឺទូទៅក្នុងការធ្វើ Extubation?
Patient follows commands
Active spontaneous respiration
Ability to protect the airway (reflexes)
stable vital signs
All of the above
57.  តើ techniques in managing airway obstruction ណាខ្លះដែលត្រឹមត្រូវ?
Chin tilt
Extension of neck
Anterior displacement of mandible
Use of airway adjuncts (oral and nasal airway)
All of the above
58.  In what condition that require anesthetist to do general anesthesia via Face Mask?
In children (induction)
In patients at severe risk of bronchospasm
Short Procedures
Difficult airway
All of the above
59.  Which are the complications of general Anesthesia during Induction?
Hypersensitivity reactions
Depression of the CNS / respiratory / cardiovascular systems
Difficult ventilation
Aspiration
All of the above
60.  Which is not the complication of general Anesthesia during Intubation?
Laryngospasm
Difficult intubation
Stenosis of trachea
Endobronchial Intubation
Esophageal Intubation
61.  Which is not the complication of general Anesthesia during Extubation?
Hypersecretion
Laryngospasm
Airway trauma
Residual Neuromuscular Blockade
Delayed Emergence
62.  Guedels stages of anaesthesia is seen classically with ?
Ether
Chloroform
Morphine
Nitrous oxide
halothane
63.  To decrease awareness in general anaesthesia, the following is given?
increase depth of anesthesia
more muscle relaxant used
premedicate with morphine
premedicate with atropine
64.  In the immediate post-operative period the common cause of respiratory insufficiency could be because of the following, EXCEPT?
Residual effect of muscle relaxant
Overdose of narcotic analgesic
Hypersecretion bronchi
Mild hypovolemic
Myocardial infarction
65.  During rapid sequence induction of anesthesia:?
Sellick’s maneuver is not required
Pre-oxygenation is mandatory
Suxamethonium is contraindicated
Long acting muscles relaxants are safe
Patient is mechanically ventilated before endotracheal intubation
66.  Coughing that occurs during awake intubation is prevented by local anesthetic block of which of the following nerves?
Superior laryngeal and glossopharyngeal
Superior laryngeal and hypoglossal
Recurrent laryngeal and glossopharyngeal
Recurrent laryngeal and superior laryngeal
67.  An induction dose of ketamine is MOST likely to have which of the following effects?
Analgesia
Attenuation of respiratory response to carbon dioxide
Decreased cerebral metabolic rate
Preservation of laryngeal reflexes
68.  What characteristic of nitrous oxide MOST likely explains why its alveolar and inspired concentrations equilibrate more rapidly than those of desflurane?
Higher vapor pressure
Lower blood gas solubility
Creation of a second gas effect
Delivery at a higher inspired concentration
69.  What is the PRIMARY purpose of denitrogenation prior to anesthetic induction?
Improving matching of ventilation and perfusion
Increasing contribution of second gas effect to rate of induction
Increasing oxygen reserve in the functional residual capacity
Maximizing arterial oxygen content
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