Championship 301-508

A drug and alcohol test is required pre-employment
True
False
Which is not true about post accident testing
It will occur following an accident resulting in a fatality
It is required in an accident as defined in the federal motor carrier safety regulations
It is required in an accident as defined in the FMCSR and receives a citation for a moving violation in connection with the accident
None of the above
During a reasonable suspicion testing for alcohol or drug abuse, a written record must be made of the observations leading to such tests, as well as being signed by the company official who made the observations
True
False
Which is considered a safety sensitive function that anyone who tests 0.04 or above is restricted from performing
Driving
Loading or unloading
Repairing vehicles
All of the above
Once a driver resumes driving, following a DUI conviction of 0.04 or above, he is subject to ___ follow up tests within the first year
3
4
5
6
The SAP may require additional unannounced follow up tests for up to ___ years
4
5
6
7
The consequences for refusing to submit to a required alcohol test are the same as if you tested at 0.04 BAC or greater
True
False
A drivers refusal to submit to a pre-employment or return to duty test does not trigger the need for a SAP evaluation
True
False
Which of the violations does not disqualify a driver for 1 year or for a lifetime with a 2nd violation
Driving under the influence of alcohol
Speeding 15 mph or more above the speed limit
Leaving the scene of an accident
Commission of a felony involving the use of a CMV
Which disqualifies a driver for 60 days for two violations within 3 years or 120 days for three violations in 3 years
Following too closely
Improper or erratic lane changing
Driving recklessly
All of the above
Which is not required when transporting a passenger in a CMV
Name of the person transported
Age of the person transported, if under 18
Where the transportation is to begin and end
Date upon which such authority expires
A low air warning should activate if air pressure in your truck is below ___ pounds
45
50
55
60
At what psi should your air brakes activate between
45 and 20
55 and 30
50 and 25
45 and 30
After an initial drop of 5 to 10 pounds, once you apply service brakes, further pressure drop should not exceed___ psi per minute
3
4
5
6
Which is not considered a miscellaneous part required on all interstate vehicles by FMCSA safety regulations
Windshield wipers and washing systems
One spare fuse for each type on the vehicle
Rear vision mirror and speedometer
Defroster device and horn
The floor of a trailer is about ___ feet above the ground, making an empty trailers center of gravity nearly equal to the height of a car
4
5
6
7
If a load is less than 4" wider than a vehicle the front protection requires an amber lamp, while the back protection requires a red lamp
True
False
A load extending ___ feet beyond the rear of a vehicle requires a red lamp or a red flag, if it is daylight
2
4
6
8
Turn signals may be red or amber
True
False
How long may a CMV have their 4 way flashers activated before they must place emergency warning devices
5 minutes
8 minutes
10 minutes
Immediately
A minimum of how many fuses must be carried to meet FMCSR
3
4
6
Fuses are now illegal
If a motor vehicle is disabled within 500 feet of a curve, warning signals may be placed in the direction of the obstruction, no more than 500 feet or no less than ___ feet from the disable vehicle
10'
40'
100'
Within reason
When a vehicle is disabled on the shoulder of a road at night, all signals are placed to the rear of the vehicle at 10 feet, 100 feet, 200 feet
True
False
When pacing off distance to place triangles, 1 pace equals
2'
2½'
3'
4'
When a driver is placed out of service due to HOS, he must
Contact his supervisor
Contact his state DMV in writing within 7 days
Get sleep
Both a and c
Roadside safety inspections must be mailed in immediately, no exceptions
True
False
Which is not a penalty for a driver who violates an out of service order
180 days to 1 year disqualification for first offense
A fine of $2,750 to the driver and $11,000 to the company
Disqualified for 2 to 5 years for 2nd violation within 10 years
None of the above
What should a driver do if a front tire fails suddenly
Accelerate to stabilize the front end, then reduce speed gradually
Concentrate on steering to keep control, and avoid brakes
Kiss your butt goodbye, it's been a nice ride
Both a and b
Non front tire failure are generally less dangerous than steer tires
True
False
Locked wheels tend to slide along the path least resistant
True
False
Which is not an area of brake performance, for which federal motor carrier safety regulations prescribe minimum limits
Braking force as a percentage of gross vehicle weight
Deceleration rate
Braking force as a percentage of gross vehicle weight rating
Braking distance
In cold weather, accumulated moisture in the brake system will freeze and obstruct the brake lines
True
False
When descending a downgrade, use
Braking effect of the engine
A lower gear
A minimum amount of the service brakes
All of the above
When descending down a hill, you should gear down once the brakes begin to lock up and release
True
False
A vehicle with a retarder may be driven faster down a long grade than a vehicle without one
True
False
What should a driver do in order to hold a parked unit in place
Apply parking brakes
Pull the hand lever
Place transmission in a lower gear
A and c
ABS is intended to reduce the likelihood of wheel lock up especially on slippery pavement
True
False
Maximum braking at any wheel occurs
Just before wheel lock up
Just as wheels lock up
Just as wheels release from lock up
In the lowest gear
ABS is designed to offset the risks of driving too fast for conditions
True
False
Jacknifing occurs most rapidly when
Steer tires lock up
Trailer wheels lock up
Tractor drive wheels lock up
When all wheels lock up
Stopping is controlled by
Gravity
Pressure
Friction
Grinding
How does a professional driver keep traction on a slippery road
Drive at a low rate of speed
Gradual application of accelerator and brakes with no abrupt turning
Adequate tread depth on tires
All of the above
What should a driver not do to recover from a skid
Release the brakes and regain control by steering
Accelerate to control the front end
Steer in the direction that the rear of the vehicle is sliding
None of the above, all will help recover from a skid
In a curved, centrifugal force is already pulling the vehicle towards the inside of the curb
True
False
If a drivers vehicle goes off the pavement, he should
Let off the throttle
Concentrate on steering
Avoid using brakes
All of the above
The speed posted on ramps is normally ___ mph above the speed in which truck should obey
5
10
15
It is the same
Quick action plus a wrong decision, or a right decision plus slow reaction can result in an accident
True
False
When driving in fog, a driver should use his high beam headlights
True
False
Statistics show that ___ of trucking accidents can be blamed on poor backing techniques
1/3
1/2
1/4
2/3
It takes approximately ¾ of a second to check thr drivers side mirror and twice that to check the passenger side mirrors
True
False
When making a safe right turn, you should
Signal well in advance
Approach the intersection slowly
Stay within 4' of the right hand curb or pavements edge
All of the above
The professional driver avoids being blinded by the glare of oncoming headlights by looking to the right hand edge of the pavement and using that as a guideline
True
False
According to FMCSR, what defines a recordable accident
A fatality
An injury treated away from the scene
A vehicle towed from the scene
All of the above
What is the first thing a driver should do if involved in an accident
Call local authorities
Exchange information
Secure the scene to prevent further accidents
Call dispatch
The 3 things to remember when reporting an emergency are who, when , where
True
False
What causes the most accidents
Speeding
Backing
Human error
Distracted driving
Which sign shape is used to post information or regulation
Square
Rectangular
Triangle
Round
The maximum limit of transmission on a cb radio is ___ with 1 minute of silence between transmissions
2 minutes
3 minutes
4 minutes
5 minutes
Which ways can smoke emissions increase operating costs
Lower fuel economy
Increase maintenance
Shorten engine life
All of the above
Bleeding tires of air will soften the ride and save on fuel costs
True
False
How many gallons of fuel per hour diesel engines consume when idling
1
2
3
4
Because diesel fuel acts as a coolant for the injectors, the injector tips can be burned if the engine idles at a high rpm
True
False
Tampering with the CMSs engine can
Increase fuel consumption
Cause the engine to smoke
Interfere with the deceleration of the engine and truck
All of the above
The environmental protection agency may fine companies up to ___ per day for engine tampering that increase fuel consumption and smoke emissions
$15,000
$10,000
$25,000
$50,000
Today's diesel engines generate torque and power over a much wider range of engine rpm, that was formerly the case
True
False
Carbon monoxide is formed st higher concentrations by diesel engines than by gasoline engines
True
False
The first obvious symptoms of carbon monoxide poisoning are
Drowsiness
Light headedness
Headache
All of the above
Which part is not part of the department of homeland security
US customs and border protection (CBP)
Immigration and naturalization (IND)
Transportation security administration (TSA)
None of the above
TSAs mission is to protect the nation's transportation systems, to ensure freedom of movement for people and ___
Traffic
Product
Commerce
Industry
TSA was created as part of the aviation and transportation security act, signed into law by President George w Bush in ___
Oct 10, 2001
Nov 19, 2001
Jan 1, 2001
Feb 5, 2001
Which is not part of the mission of DHS
Prevent terrorist attacks within the US
To secure borders from illegal entry of non US citizens
Reduce the vulnerability of the US to terrorism
Minimize the damage and assist in the recovery from terrorist attacks that occur in the US
The trade act of 2002, enacted on Aug 6, 2002, requires that carriers or their brokers send- and CBP electronically collect- cargo, driver, and equipment information prior to arrival or departure from the US
True
False
What date was the maritime transportation security act enacted
May 5, 2002
Jan 14, 2002
Nov 25, 2002
Oct 11, 2002
___ million TWICs have been issued to port employees, longshoremen, mariners, and truckers
20.6
19.4
26.0
22.6
In mid 2012, TSA determined that the security threat assessment (STA) for the hazardous materials endorsement and TWIC are comparable
True
False
The intelligence reform and terrorism prevention act of 2004 mandated 'who' to develop and implement a plan requiring US citizens and foreign nationals to present a passport or other secure document when entering the US
Secretary of homeland security
Secretary of state
US border control
Both a and b
The western hemisphere travel initiative was published on
March 10, 2007
Aug 10, 2007
Oct 14, 2007
Dec 31, 2007
Which country is not affected by the western hemisphere travel initiative
Bermuda
Canada
Mexico
None of the above
The FAST card is not an acceptable WHTI document
True
False
The free and secure trade (FAST) program is a joint initiative between
US, Bermuda, Canada
US, Bermuda, Mexico
US, Canada, Mexico
US, Bermuda, Mexico, Canada
C-TPAT stands for
Customs trade prevention against terrorism
Critical trade prevention against terrorism
Customs trade partnership against terrorism
None of the above
In order to be C-TPAT certified, a carrier must conduct a comprehensive self assessment and implement a program to enhance its supply chain security using C-TPAT security guidelines
True
False
On what date didncongress pass the REAL ID act
June 2005
July 2005
Oct 2005
May 2005
The REAL ID act set minimum nationals standards for insurance of a state driver's license
True
False
Which is not a feature incorporated into drivers license per the REAL ID act
Digital photo
Machine readable technology
Meical certificate linked to CDL
Anti counterfeiting characteristics
On Jan 28, 2007, DHS issued the REAL ID final rule, which designated ___ different security criteria
14
15
16
18
How many states have passed laws forbidding them from complying with the REAL ID program
20
25
30
35
As of Jan 10, 2016, Illinois, New Mexico, Missouri, and Washington state are no longer compliant with the REAL ID act
True
False
On what date did TSA begin conducting voluntary corporate security reviews (CSRs)
July 2005
August 2005
September 2005
October 2005
In August 2006, DHS established government coordinating councils for ___ critical infrastructures
16
17
18
19
In Dec 2006, President George w Bush issued an executive order calling for the security assessment of each surface transportation mode and evaluation of the effectiveness of current federal government surface transportation security initiatives
True
False
On what date did TSA publish the air cargo security requirements final rule
May 2006
June 2006
August 2006
November 2006
Per the air cargo security requirements, all employees and authorized agents of an indirect air carrier (IAC), who have unescorted access to air cargo, must undergo a name based security threat measure
True
False
Drivers possessing a valid ___ security credential are in compliance with the air cargo security threat assessment
HME
TWIC
FAST or SIDA
All of the above
ATA continues to work with TSA to increase the burden certain requirements of the rule have placed on IAC motor carrier agents
True
False
The supply chain security and loss prevention counsel (SCS & LPC) is part of
TSA
DHS
DOT
ATA
Certified cargo security professionals (CCSP) are trained, testes, and certified security professionals and law enforcement in ___ areas related to trucking and supply chain security
9
10
11
13
Trucking had a significant victory in 2007 when a national uniform crime code was added for cargo theft and the US sentencing commission set minimum penalties for cargo theft tried in federal courts
True
False
The simplest way to secure one's trailer is
Park under lights
Park in a gated lot
Lock the trailer door
Park where the vehicle can be observed
In the acronym T-R-U-C-K-S 'U' stands for
Usual activity
Unseen activity
Unusual activity
Ultimate action
Cargo theft is most likely to occur on
Weekdays
Weekends
Holidays
Both b and c
Federal hazardous materials transportation law directs the secretary of transportation to establish regulations for the safe and secure transportation of hazmat in commerce
True
False
Which is not a responsibility of the shipper, when shipping hazmat
Classify the HM
Provide emergency response information
Providing placards
None of the above
Each person who knowingly violates a requirement of federal HM law is liable for a penalty of not less than $250.00 and not more than
$25,000
$50,000
$75,000
$175,000
Under egregious circumstances, you may be fined up to $175,000 for violating a hazmat transportation law
True
False
An immediate telephone report is required for
Public evacuated for 1 hour or more
Altered flight path of an aircraft
Release of a marine pollutant that occurs in a quantity exceeding 118 gallons of a liquid or 882 pounds of a solid
All of the above
EPA requires carriers to report any release of a hazardous substance in a quantity equal to or greater than its reportable quantity
True
False
An unintentional release of an HM, or the discharge of any quantity of hazardous waste, requires a written incident report within
2 days
2 weeks
30 days
None of the above
At a minimum, a security plan must include all but
Personal security
Public security
Unauthorized access
En route security
Which safety training is not required by all HM employees
Hazmat containment
Emergency response information
Personal protection from HM exposure
Methods designed to enhance transportation security
Which training is required for a CMV drivers hauling HM
A pretrip safety inspection
Loading and unloading of materials
Procedures for maneuvering tunnels, bridges and RR crossings
All of the above
Each person operating a cargo tank or vehicle with a portable tank of___ gallons or more, and has an aggregate capacity of 1,000+ gallons must relieve specialized training
119
100
124
1000
The discharge of contents of any container, other than a cargo tank or portable tank, must not be made prior to removal from the motor vehicle
True
False
Which does not restrict smoking on or about a motor vehicle
Class 1 explosives
Poison inhalation A
Class 5 oxidizer
4.2 spontaneously combustible materials
President George w Bush signed the USA patriot act on
Oct 26, 2001
Nov 11, 2001
Sept 11, 2002
Aug 9, 2002
What section of the USA patriot act requires that any commercial driver, who has or will seek a hazardous material endorsement to his CDL, must undergo a background check
1040
1008
1020
1012
FMCSAs rule requires drivers to renew their HME at least once every ___ years
2
4
5
6
If a driver fails a background check, he may request a waiver from TSA based upon his particular circumstances
True
False
Which is not a waiver TSA may consider on a failed background check
Restitution made by the individual
Any federal or state mitigation remedies
Circumstances of any disqualifying act
Challenge of a current citizenship standard
Specifically, SAFETEA-LU requires the ___ to receive notice of a drivers disqualification when he does not meet security threat assessment standards
Employee
Employer
State
All of the above
Which highway bill established nationwide uniform HM training for law enforcement and response officials, and was passed in 2012
SAFETEA-LU
TEA 21
MAP 21
USA PATRIOT ACT
States must update their HM highway routings to PHMSA within ___ days of making a change
30
7
60
45
States must report any HM transportation permitting fee changes to DOT every ___
Month
6 months
Year
2 years
MAP 21 allows PHMSA to engage in a pilot project to test the use of paperless HM shipping papers for carriers in the program, and to study how to improve the HM safety permit program and special permit criteria
True
False
To receive an HME, a driver must provide his current residential address and previous residential addresses for the preceding ___ years
4
5
6
7
A driver must disclose to the state, within ___, if convicted of a disqualifying crime or found not guilty by reason of insanity
24 hours
7 days
14 days
None of the above
When must a driver surrender their hazardous materials endorsement
If they are an alien(unless a lawful permanent resident)
If they are wanted or under indictment for certain felonies
If they are convicted in civilian or military court for certain felonies
All of the above
The letter ___ indicates a leakage test was performed on a cargo tank
V
K
L
I
If EPA method 27 is used for leakage testing, the tank must be marked EPA method 27
True
False
Nitrogen is a colorless, odorless gas that does not support combustion, and is used to prevent product contamination from air to moisture
True
False
Which is not true concerning nitrogen
It is flammable
It displaces oxygen
It cannot be seen or smelled
None of the above
Flammable, but not combustible, must he grounded while loaded or unloading
True
False
Remote control on a cargo tank is
Primary control to close the internal valves
Primary control to close the external valves
Secondary control to close the internal valves
Secondary control to close the external valves
What date did President Obama sign into law the fixing America's surface transportation act (Fast act)
Dec 4, 2015
Jan 1, 2016
Oct 19, 2015
Nov 25, 2015
Which is true about internal valves on a cargo truck
Self closing
Close automatically
Prevent accidental release of product
All of the above
Fusible links are heat activated devices installed in the cable lines or tubing and will melt at ___ in case of fire
101°c
110°c
115°c
121°c
A shear section is a slight groove cut into the outlet piping within ___ of the tank shell
2"
4"
6"
8"
Bulk heads have openings generally at the top and bottom, while baffled are liquid tight
True
False
Outage is the volume of tank, which is not filled when the tank is loaded and Is generally ___ of the total volume
1 to 2%
1 to 3%
1 to 4%
It is an untrue statement
Tanks are filled with liquids, which are generally warmer than the air temperature
True
False
If there is an overflow or pillage on the ground around a tank, and involves hazardous material, the driver should
Try to contain the spill if properly trained to do so
Notify the company of the product and quantity spilled
Notify the user of the property and the local authorities
All of the above
When around a loading rack a driver should
Shut his engine off
Turn off electronic devices
Secure vehicle from movement
All of the above
A specification cargo tank must include or meet
Requirements for overturn protection
Specifications for valves, venting, manholes, metal thickness, and piping
Specifications for welding procedures
All of the above
Which do not require to be hauled in specification tanks in domestic transportation
Combustible liquids
Flammable liquids
Class 9
Both a and c
What information is included on specification plates
Name of the tank manufacturer
Tank manufacturers serial number
Dates of manufacturers tests and shell materials
All of the above
Which is not true about using bond wires
Used during loading and unloading of HM, in a tank truck
Effectively ground vehicles
Prevent the build up of static charge
A drag chain is an effective grounding device for this purpose
An inadvertent mixture of incompatible materials may result in the release of toxic fumes and may also increase the risk of fire or explosion
True
False
Concerning placards on a cargo tank, which is true
Must be changed after the tank is empty
Must be left in place until the vehicle is purged
Must file a c49 form before changing contents of tank
None of the above
A cargo tank is particularly vulnerable to liquid surge when it is completely full
True
False
4.2 is the numbered class for
Dangerous when wet
Organic peroxide
Spontaneously combustible
Flammable solid
1,001 pounds, the weight below which placarding is not required for table 2 hazardous materials, is equal to ___
400
450
454
410
119 gallons, the volume at which packaging is deemed to be a bulk packaging for liquids, is equal to ___ liters
400
450
454
425
Which is the weight of one commodity in non bulk packaging, for which ID numbers are to be displayed on a transport vehicle
4000 kg
8001 pounds
8818 pounds
Both a and c
37.8°c is equal to 100°f and 60.5°c us equal to 141°f
True
False
200°f is equal to
90°c
91°c
93°c
95°c
An elevated material is
Liquid at a temperature at or above 100°c(212°f)
Liquid with a Flashpoint at or above 37.8°c(100°f), which is intentionally heated and transported at or above Flashpoint
Solid transported at or above 240°c(464°f)
All of the above
How can packages, marked in accordance with united nations recommendations and HM regulations, be identified
UN symbol
NA symbol
Placards
Both a and b
Which is not a way to designate individual HM shipments on the shipping papers
Listed first
With a red tab
In a color that contrasts with non HM entries
Designated by an 'X'
Which is required by DOT to be on the shipping papers, in order to identify hazardous material loads
Proper shipping name
Numerical class of the HM
Identification number
All of the above
Both labels and placards are diamond-shaped, and placards generally resemble labels
True
False
Trucks must be placarded for any quantity of table 1 HM or ___ or more of table 2 HM
454 kg
1001 pounds
1000 pounds
Both a and b
Placarding is required for all, but any quantity of
2.3 poison gas
5.2 organic peroxide type B
4.3 flammable solids, dangerous when wet
6.3 poisons, inhalation hazard
Which does not require placards
6.2 infectious substance
ORM-D
Radioactive white l or yellow ll
All of the above
What needs to be displayed when transporting elevated temperature material
3527
3725
3257
3572
If 2,205 pounds or more of an HM for which placarding is required at a 1,001 pound level (table 2) is loaded ar a single location, that class of placard must be displayed in addition to any other placards
True
False
Cargo tanks and portable tanks must be placarded only if the quantity of material is 119 gallons or greater
True
False
The use of 'dangerous' placards is not allowed for bulk packaging
True
False
The ID number of an HM must be displayed on your vehicle when
8,820 pounds or more of a single HM is loaded at one stop and there is no other material on board
Hauling a bulk packaging HM, such as a cargo or portable tank
2,205 pounds or more of a poison inhalation hazard zone A or B is loaded at one facility
All of the above
Which is an option for displaying identification numbers on a cargo tank
Black numbers on an orange panel
Black numbers on a placard
Black numbers on a square on point configuration having the size and shape of a placard
All of the above
If a material meets the definition of two specified HM classes, it is required to be labeled for each
True
False
Which is not true about HM Shipping papers
Must be within drivers reach when restrained by a safety belt
May be in a pouch attached to the driver door
When the driver is away from the vehicle, must be in a pouch on the driver's door, or in the driver's seat
None of the above
Per new requirements, the UN number must now be at the start of the HM description
True
False
As of ___, subsidiary hazard classes must be entered in parenthesis following the primary hazard class
Oct 14, 2005
Oct 10, 2005
Oct 1, 2005
Oct 30, 2005
Which emergency response information is required for HMs
Risks of fire or explosion
Preliminary first aid measures
Methods for handling fires
All of the above
Chemtrec was created by the American chemistry council and stands for
Chemical transportation emergency center
Chemical treatment emergency center
Chemical treatment evacuation center
Chemical transportation expert center
If you have more than one HM shipment in a load, you may have more than one emergency telephone number
True
False
In a HM emergency, a driver should contact
Their company
The shipper
Local emergency responders
Both a and c
A carriers failure to complete timely telephone and written reports for fuel spills has resulted in fines and penalties for ___% of all power units
1
2
3
4
Which HMs should be considered as contaminants capable of causing damage to waterways
Hazardous substances
Hazardous wastes
Marine pollutants
All of the above
What is the maximum penalty for not reporting spills into waterways, per day
$10,000
$25,000
$75,000
$100,000
Additionally, states and municipalities may levy separate fines for not reporting spills into waterways
True
False
In order to be considered a hazardous substance, the weight of the material in one package must be equal to or exceed the reportable quantity listed for that material
True
False
If a material is listed in the hazardous material table alone, it will only be regulated as an HM
True
False
On non bulk packaging only, the letters 'RQ' must appear on the package of hazardous substance shipment in association with the proper shipping name
True
False
HM regulations require that the letters 'RQ' must appear afte4 the basic description of the material substances on shipping papers
True
False
Which is required to stop at a RR crossing
Vehicles transporting any quantity of chlorine
Any placarded vehicle transporting HMs
Cargo tanks loaded at a temperature above its flashpoint
All of the above
Vehicles must stop within ___ feet, but not less than ___ feet of a RR Xing
10 and 5
50 and 10
50 and 15
25 and 15
For a first conviction of disregarding grade crossing safety rules, drivers will be disqualified from operating a CMV for ___ days
30
45
60
90
Which should be used to connect gas heaters
Rigid metal tubing
Copper tubing
High grade flexible tubing
Insulated flex hose
Which is the first step when administering first aid to anyone overcome by gas
Remove everyone from the area
Ventilate the area
Prevent yourself from inhaling the gas
Perform CPR on any unconscious victims
What if the first aid treatment for chemical burns to the eye
Flush face, eyes, and eyelids with cool running water for 15 minutes if the chemical is acid
Cover eye with dry dressing
Don't rub eye
All of the above
First alkali burns, you should flush face, eyelids, and eyes with running water for ___ minutes
10
20
30
45
How long should you wash away chemicals when suffering from chemical burns
No less than 15 mins
10 minutes
5 minutes
3 to 5 minutes
If exposed to acid, you should remove contaminated clothing and douse yourself with warm water for no less than
10 minutes
20 minutes
30 minutes
45 minutes
Which is most likely to increase the seriousness of a truck fire
Explosives
Oxidizers
Organic peroxides
All of the above
Weak acids require a face shield, rubber quartets, a complete rubberized suit, rubber boots and hat, in order to handle them
True
False
The FMCSR prohibits smoking within 25 feet of
Explosives
Flammable materials
Oxidizers
All of the above
A tank truck that has rolled 180° and is lying upside down, poses a greater risk than a tank truck on its side
True
False
Simply closing the manhole cover will often extinguish the fire at the manhole opening of a cargo tank
True
False
The upper limit of the Flashpoint of flammable liquids is 141°f, while for combustible liquids it is
190°
191°
199°
201°
Anaphylaxis is a severe allergic reaction which can
Cause a body to go into shock
Cause respiratory distress
Cause circulatory collapse
All of the above
For some, anaphylaxis can occur within minutes, for others, several hours
True
False
Which is not an effect of someone suffering and allergic attack
Blood pressure rises
Dizziness
Abdominal cramping
Naseau
Which is used most commonly for allergic reactions
Levoxyl
Pedamephrine
Acetatone
Epinephrine
What is diphenhydramine
An antihistamine pill
A type of auto injector
A cough suppressant
A liquid gel cap for overdoses
How long should you massage the injection site after applying an auto injector into a person's though
5 seconds
10 seconds
30 seconds
60 seconds
Which is not used to determine treatment for burns
The depth of burn
The type of burn
How much area of the body is affected
Location of the burn
The first step in treating a burn is to determine the degree and the extent of damage to body tissue
True
False
{"name":"Championship 301-508", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"a drug and alcohol test is required pre-employment, which is not true about post accident testing, during a reasonable suspicion testing for alcohol or drug abuse, a written record must be made of the observations leading to such tests, as well as being signed by the company official who made the observations","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
Make your own Survey
- it's free to start.