Bone Diseases
1-Osteogenesis imperfecta type III is especially associated with..........
A) Dentinogenesis Imperfecta
B) Cardiopulmonary complications
C) Renal Stones
D) None of the above
2- Ground glass radiographic feature can be seen in..........
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Hyperparathyroidism
C) Paget's disease
D) Both A & B
3- Onion Skin appearance is a radiographic sign of.............
A) Chondrosarcoma
B) Ewing's sarcoma
C) Garre's osteomyelitis
D) Both B & C
4- Punched out radiolucency and floating in air teeth are obvious of the radiographic examination of...........
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Familial fibrous dysplasia
C) Osteitis deformans
D) Histocytosis X
5- The cotton wool appearance can be detected in the radiograph of..........
A) Langerhans cell disease
B) Osteitis deformans
C) Focal sclerosing osteomyelitis
D) Both B & C
6- The type of histocysosis X associated with exophalmous , diabetes insipidus & multiple punched out lytic lesions in his bone is.............
A) Eosinophilic granuloma
B) Letter-Siwe disease
C) Hand Schuller christian
D) None of the above
7- Mccune-Albright syndrome resembles Jaffe type of polystotic fibrous dysplasia in all of the following except...........
A) Multiple bone Lesions
B) Endocrinal hyperfunction
C) Skin pigmentation
D) Both A & B
8- All of the following exhibit giant cells during the histological examination except...........
A) Familial fibrous dysplasia
B) Hyperparathyroidism
C) Giant cell granuloma
D) Fibrous dysplasia
9- The disease revealed alkaline phosphatase enzyme in the histopathology is..........
A) Paget's disease
B) Hyperparathyroidism
C) Cherubism
D) Both A & B
10. Osteogenesis imperfecta results from an abnormality in collagen _______
(a) Type III
(b) Type II
(c) Type I
(d) Type IV
11. Failure of osteoclasts to resorb bone thereby resulting in thickened sclerotic bones with reduced mechanical strength is a characteristic feature of
(a) Osteogenesis imperfecta
(b) Osteopetrosis
(c) Paget’s disease
(d) Fibrous dysplasia
12. Large café-au-lait spots with irregular margins, precocious puberty and a “ground glass” appearance of affected bones
(a) Paget’s disease
(b) Pierre Robin anomalad
(c) Fibrous dysplasia
(d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
13. All of the following except __________________ are histological features found in fibrous dysplasia.
(a) Irregular, Chinese character-shaped bony trabeculae
(b) Osteoblastic rimming of bony trabeculae
(c) Larger than normal osteoblasts
(d) Collagen fibers of trabeculae extending into fibrous tissue
14. McCune-Albright syndrome is also better known as
(a) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
(b) Paget’s disease
(c) Polyostotic fibrous dysplasia
(d) Hyperparathyroidism
15. A hereditary non-neoplastic bone lesion, histologically similar to central giant cell granuloma and affecting the jaws of children bilaterally is called as
(a) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
(b) Cherubism
(c) Hypophosphatasia
(d) Brown’s tumor
16. Which one of the following histological features is found in Paget’s disease?
(a) Failure of endochondral ossification
(b) Failure of fibroblastic maturation
(c) Abnormal and excessive remodeling of bone
(d) Abnormal collagen maturation
17. Characteristic “Cotton wool” appearance of involved bones is seen in
(a) Fibrous dysplasia
(b) Infantile cortical hyperostosis
(c) Osteopetrosis
(d) Paget’s disease
18. Letterer-Siwe disease, eosinophilic granuloma and Hand- Schüller-Christian disease all belong to various clinical spectra of
A) Paget's disease
B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
C) Marfan syndrome
D) Langerhans cell histiocytosis
19. All except ____ are considered as etiological factors of Paget’s disease of bones.
(a) Viral
(b) Bacterial
(c) Vascular
(d) Inflammatory
20. Preccocious puberty is most characteristic of which of the following?
A) Jaffe's syndrome
B) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C) Albright's syndrome
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
21. Which of the following diseases of the bone characteristically exhibits a single lesion in a single bone?
A) Central giant cell granuloma
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Peget's disease of bone
D) Polystotic fibrous dysplasia
22. Which of the following has the potential for undergoing "spontaneous malignant transformation"
A) Osteomalacia
B) Albright's syndrome
C) Paget's disease of bone
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
23. Which of the following are a triad of the sign and symptoms of osteogenesis imperfecta?
A) Blue sclera, sprase hair, anhydrosis
B) enlarged hand, feet, maxilla and mandible
C) Blue sclera, brittle bones, opalescent dentin
D) Blue sclera, arachnodactyly, brittle bones
24. A 3-year-old patient reports of painless progressive bilateral facial swellings. The tentative diagnosis is:
A) Cherubism
B) Monostotic fibrous dysplasia
C) Polystotic fibrous dysplasia
D) Central giant cell granuloma
25. One of the following isn't a feature of Albrights syndrome:
A) Heart disease
B) Polystotic fibrous dysplasia
C) Cafe au lait spots
D) Endocrine abnormalities
26. False about cherubism:
A) Unilocular lesion
B) Bilateral
C) Presence of giant cell
D) Delayed eruption of permanent teeth
27. The histopathology of osteopetrosis shows:
A) Endosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
B) Periosteal bone formation and lack of normal bone resorption
C) Presence of extra collagen fibers and less calcification resulting in resistance of bones to fracture
D) Presence of numerous osteoclasts and a few osteoblasts
28. Multiple fractures are seen in:
A) Rickets
B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
C) Osteomyelitis
D) Osteoma
29. Orange peel and ground glass radiographic appearance is observed in:
A) Paget's disease
B) Ewing's sarcoma
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Fibrous dysplasia
30. The treatment of a child with cherubism is:
A) Surgical excision
B) Cosmetic surgery after puberty
C) Radiation
D) Enbloc resection
31. A patient complains of loss of visual acuity, deafness and enlargement of maxilla:
A) Paget's disease
B) Osteomalacia
C) Fibrous dysplasia
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
32. Patient came to the clinic with features of multiple bone radiolucencies and hypercalcemia indicative of:
A) Acromegaly
B) Hypothyroidism
C) Hyperparathyroidism
D) Osteitis deformans
33. Amber colored tooth translucency, blue sclera and bone fragility and a history of previous bone fractures are characteristic findings in:
A) Osteopetrosis
B) Osteogenesis imperfecta
C) Osteitis deformans
D) Osteitis fibrosa cystica
34. Mosaic pattern of bone is seen in:
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Paget's disease
C) Osteopetrosis
D) Osteogenesis imperfecta
35. A 10-year old child presents with anemia and recurrent fractures. The x-ray shows diffuse hyper density of bone. The diagnosis is most likely to be:
A) Osteogenesis imperfecta
B) Osteopetrosis
C) Osteochondroma
D) Hyperparathyroidism
36. Immature bone trabeculae are found in:
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Paget's disease
C) Rickets
D) Cleidocranial dysplaisa
37. In a 60 year old adult, which of the following diseases cause expansile maxillary lesions?
A) Paget's disease
B) Acromegaly
C) Fibrous dysplasia
D) Rickets
38. Paget's disease of bone is a chronic disease of the:
A) prepubertal skeleton
B) pubertal skeleton
C) Infantile skeleton
D) Adult skeleton
39. Mutation of GNAS1 gene is associated with:
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Ossifying fibroma
C) Focal cementoosseous dysplasia
D) Periapical cementoosseous dysplasia
40. Monostotic fibrous dysplasia is most similar histologically to:
A) Giant cell granuloma
B) Aneurysmal bone cysy
C) Paget's disease of bone
D) Ossifying fibroma
41. What is the most common primary malignancy of bone:
A) Chondrosarcoma
B) Osteosarcoma
C) Fibrosarcoma
D) Ewing's sarcoma
42. Radiographic features of Ewing's sarcoma:
A) Regular, asymmetric radiolucent with onion skin appearance
B) Irregular, asymmetric radiolucent with onion skin appearance
C) Regular, asymmetric radiopaque with onion skin appearance
D) Irregular, asymmetric radiopaque with onion skin appearance
43. Osteitis fibrosa cystica is caused due to:
A) Hyperparathyroidism
B) Paget's disease
C) Chrubism
D) Fibrous dysplasia
44. Select the correct option describing central giant cell granuloma:
A) They occur most commonly in the fourth to fifth decades
B) They are more common in males
C) They affect the maxilla most commonly
D) They occur anteriorly most commonly
45. Hyperparathyroidism is most commonly associated with which syndrome?
(a) von Recklinghausen’s disease
(b) Cleidocranial dysostosis
(c) Multiple endocrine neoplasia Type 1
(d) Fibrous dysplasia
46. Asymmetric widening of the periodontal ligaments around two or more teeth is seen in:
A) Paget's disease
B) Fibrous dysplasia
C) Osteosarcoma
D) Metastatic breast carcinoma
47. Osteosarcoma presents a radiographic picture resembling:
A) Sun-burst appearance
B) Cotton wool appearance
C) Soap bubble appearance
D) Ground glass appearance
48. Metastatic disease to the oral region is most likely to occur in which of these locations?
A) Tongue
B) Posterior maxilla
C) Posterior mandible
D) Floor of the mouth
49. Histochemical demonstration of glycogen in the cells can help in the diagnosis of:
A) Osteosarcoma
B) Chondrosarcoma
C) Ewing's sarcoma
D) Squamous cell carcinoma
50. On biopsy report of CGCG on the basis of histological & morphological similarities, differential diagnosis is made between:
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Hyperparathyroidism
C) Osteitis deformans
D) Hyperthyroidism
51. Which bone disorder should be considered for differential diagnosis in case of a finding of generalized hypercementosis?
(a) Paget’s disease
(b) Fibrous dysplasia
(c) Osteopetrosis
(d) Osteogenesis imperfecta
52. Examination of 5-year-old boy revealed bowing of his legs with history of previous fractures and blue eye sclera. Teeth are greyish white with obliteration of pulp chamber. What is the diagnosis?
A) Fibrous dysplasia
B) Hyperparathyroidism
C) Osteogenesis Imperfecta
D) Cherubism
53. The classic triad of Hand Schuller Christian disease includes lesions of bone, exophthalmos and :
A) Diabetes Mellitus
B) Hepatosplenomegaly
C) Hypothyroidism
D) Diabetes Insipidus
54. Hand Schuller Christian disease is an acute form of histocytosis X diseases, while Letterer Siwe disease is a chronic form.
A) True
B) False
55. Radiographically, in osteopertrosis, there is a generalized decrease in density of bone.
A) True
B) False
56. Osteogenesis imperfecta is an inherited disease of the skeleton caused by mutation in the genes that code for type I collagen.
A) True
B) False
57. Histocytosis X diseases include Hand Schuller Christian disease, Letterer Siwe disease and peripheral giant cell granuloma.
A) True
B) False
58. In hyperparathyroidism, there is a generalized osteoporosis and decrease in serum calcium.
A) True
B) False
59. Osteoma has a malignant potentiality to be transformed into osteosarcoma.
A) True
B) False
60. Osteogenesis imperfecta is considered as fibro-osseous lesion
A) True
B) False
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