NASM

A personal trainer has his client perform the following exercises in order: ball squat, curl to overhead press, ball dumbbell chest press, standing cable row, seated stability ball military press, step-up to balance, and then repeat the sequence. Which of the following resistance training systems does this exercise routine represent?

What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?

Which of the following exercises is the best example of a Stabilization Level exercise?

In which phase of the OPT model would ice skaters be an appropriate exercise?

The main goal of balance training is to continually increase a client’s awareness of his or her limit of stability awareness by creating which of the following?

For which of the following populations would hypertrophy training be most beneficial?

What is a primary cause of musculoskeletal degeneration in the adult population?

During sprinting, backside mechanics includes which of the following motions?

Which term refers to the body being in equilibrium and stationary?

Which of the following is a primary focus of exercising in the Stabilization Level of training?

What is the best example of performing an exercise in a proprioceptively enriched environment?

James performs a multiplanar lunge to balance. After first stepping out into the lunge, which of the following should he perform as the next step in this exercise?

Which classification of exercises involve more dynamic eccentric and concentric movement through a full range of motion?

An advanced client who is interested in gaining high levels of muscle mass would benefit most from which of the following resistance-training systems?

During a workout, a personal trainer wants to increase the proprioceptive demand of a standard push-up exercise for his client. Which of the following would be a proper progression?

How long should a client hold the landing position in a squat jump with stabilization exercise?

For which exercise is a single-leg position a progression?

What refers to the weight and movements placed on the body?

A resistance training system that is a variation of circuit training and that alternates upper body and lower body exercises throughout the circuit is called?

Exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

When training for balance, exercises that involve dynamic eccentric and concentric movement of the balance leg through a full range of motion are categorized as which of the following?

Which of the following focuses on increasing muscle size?

A new client with limited exercise experience has recently begun a Phase 1: Stabilization Endurance training program. Which of the following is the most appropriate way for this client to increase muscular endurance?

Ice skaters are an example of which type of exercise?

Reactive training improves neuromuscular efficiency and improves the range of speed set by which of the following systems?

In which of the following cases should the two-arm push press be avoided?

Which of the following best describes the split-routine system used in resistance training?

What is the purpose of stretch-shortening cycles?

While performing a single-leg squat touchdown, which of the following ways can the proprioceptive challenge be increased?

Resistance should be positioned to resist scapular depression and retraction during which of the following exercises?

Which of the following is a true statement about circuit training?

During the butt kick exercise, a personal trainer notices a client arching his low back at the height of the jump. Which of the following muscle groups are most likely tight?

Which of the following is an appropriate speed, agility, and quickness drill?

Performing resistance training exercises in a circuit fashion in order to burn more calories is an example of which of the following principles of specificity?

Which of the following terms refers to the division of a training program into smaller, progressive stages?

When performed as fast and as explosively as possible, ice skaters are categorized in which of the following phases?

Which of the following balance exercises is appropriate for a client training in Phase 1 of the OPT model?

A client has been training in Phase 2 for 4 months. She is now experienceing joint pain and emotional fatigue. What stage of the general adaptation syndrome is she most likely in?

What exercise is considered a total-body Strength Level exercise?

What is the balance-stabilization exercise that involves lifting one leg directly beside the balance leg while maintaining optimal alignment including level hips and shoulders and holding this position for 5-20 seconds?

During which of the following are optimal landing mechanics first established?

The first exercise during Strength Endurance training involves a traditional strength exercise, such as a bench press, that is performed in a stable environment in order to elicit which of the following?

Which term best describes the enlargement of skeletal muscle fibers in response to overcoming force from high volumes of tension?

On Monday, a client trains his chest, shoulders, and triceps. Thursday, he trains his back, biceps, and legs. This is an example of what type of resistance training system?

Which of the following is a leg-stabilization exercise whose preparatory step involves standing in front of a box or platform with feet pointed straight ahead?

What is a multiplanar step-up to balance an example of?

According to the Optimum Performance Training (OPT) model, which of the following is a goal of the Maximal Strength Phase of training?

Which principle states the body will specifically adapt to the type of demand placed on it?

A ball squat, curl to press is an example of an exercise from which level in the OPT model?

Which term refers to the ability of muscles to exert maximal power in a minimal amount of time?

What is neuromuscular efficiency?

How should exercises be performed in order to develop higher levels of stability?

Which of the following exercises is considered a back-stabilization exercise?

Which of the following is an example of a peripheral heart action system?

A client performs a ball squat, curl to overhead press followed by a push-up, a standing cable row, a single-leg scaption, and a single-leg squat in a circuit fashion. This is an example of which of the following resistance training systems?

Which of the following is a site for testing in the Durnin-Womersley percent body fat test?

What is blood pressure (BP)?

Which of the following can be caused by low-back injuries?

Which of the following is part of the objective information collected in a fitness assessment?

Which of the following is a questionnaire designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client?

Which of the following is recorded on the palm side of the wrist?

What is the term for the client's pulse found on their wrist?

What is the best time of day to have your client measure their resting heart rate?

Which of the following should be kept in a neutral position during exercise?

Working with the arms overhead for long periods can lead to shoulder and neck soreness as a result of which of the following?

If a client’s feet turn out during the overhead squat assessment, what muscle would be considered underactive?

A personal trainer observes that a client leans forward excessively while performing an overhead squat. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

A client's head protrudes during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined a client falls in the “Below Average” category for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client?

Which of the following muscles is most likely overactive if a client’s head protrudes forward during the pushing assessment?

In a client with lower crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is most likely lengthened?

A new client performs the Rockport walk test and scores in the “good” category of cardiovascular fitness. Up to which of the following percentages of maximal heart rate should this client train?

During a pulling assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client's shoulders elevate. Which of the following muscles is most likely underactive?

What is the most accurate time of day to conduct a resting heart rate measurement?

Which of the following assessments will best allow the personal trainer to view potential postural imbalances surrounding the feet, ankles, knees, lumbo-pelvic-hip complex (LPHC), shoulder, and cervical complex?

Which of the following is part of the subjective information gathered in a fitness assessment?

During a static postural assessment, a personal trainer observes that a client has protracted shoulders and a forward head. Which of the following muscles is most likely to be shortened?

Which of the following is a proper equation when determining a client's heart rate for zone 1?

During a single-leg squat assessment, a personal trainer notices a client's knee drifting inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

During the pushing assessment, the client’s shoulders elevate, what strengthening exercise is most appropriate?

Which of the following is a movement involved in the single-leg squat assessment?

In a client with upper crossed syndrome, which of the following muscles is shortened?

During the overhead squat assessment, which areas should the fitness professional focus on from the anterior view?

Which of the following is a characteristic of lower crossed syndrome?

Which of the following tests estimates an individual's cardiorespiratory fitness level on the basis of a submaximal bout of stair climbing at a set pace for a standard time limit?

After performing a 3-minute step test, it is determined a client falls in the “Below Average” category for cardiovascular fitness. What is the appropriate starting zone for the client?

A client's low back arches during a pulling assessment. Which of the following muscles should be stretched?

During a single-leg squat assessment, the client’s standing leg caves inward. Which of the following muscles is probably underactive?

Which assessment should a personal trainer use to determine the heart rate zone a client should begin training at?

A personal trainer observes a client's knees moving inward while performing the overhead squat assessment. Which of the following muscles are probably underactive?

Ruby performs an overhead squat assessment. Which of the following movement compensations indicates the need for a static standing TFL stretch?

To which of the following does the term body composition refer?

Which of the following is considered subjective information?

The Rockport walk test is used to determine which of the following?

In which muscles is overactivity or tightness common for individuals who regularly wear high heels?

Which of the following assessments is designed to assess lower-extremity agility and neuromuscular control?

When performing a single-leg squat assessment, if the knee moves inward, what is a probable overactive muscle?

Which method, also known as the Karvonen method, is used for establishing training intensity based on the difference between a client's predicted maximal heart rate and his or her resting heart rate?

Which of the following best describes the purpose of the Davies test assessment?

Which of the following is a characteristic of upper crossed syndrome?

Which of the following is the appropriate method to estimate the maximum heart rate for a client?

Which of the following is considered objective information gathered during a fitness evaluation?

Which of the following assessments measures muscular endurance of the upper body?

Which of the following assessments can also be used to determine training intensities of the bench press?

Which of the following was designed to determine the safety or possible risk of exercise for a client based on the answers to specific health history questions?

Which term represents the ability of the neuromuscular system to allow all muscles to work synergistically?

What is used to increase the extensibility of soft tissues through both autogenic inhibition and reciprocal inhibition?

Which of the following cues is appropriate to give a client who will be performing a floor bridge exercise?

What is caused by a tight agonist muscle decreasing the neural drive to its functional antagonist?

Which of the following is true about dynamic stretching?

What should a client foam roll to effectively target the piriformis when performing self-myofascial release?

What are predictable patterns of muscle imbalance called?

Which of the following exercise techniques involves lying on one's back and raising the hips off a bench?

Which of the following exercises is the most effective at improving dynamic stabilization, concentric strength, eccentric strength, and neuromuscular efficiency of the entire kinetic chain?

To which of the following do the local core stabilizers attach?

Contracting the glutes while performing a static standing TFL stretch will cause which of the following effects?

A client is currently training in the Hypertrophy Phase of the OPT model. Which phase of the flexibility continuum would be the most appropriate?

A client experiences difficulty in performing the prone iso-abs exercise. Which of the following should be suggested as a regression?

What is the process of passively taking a muscle to the point of tension and holding the stretch for a minimum of 30 seconds?

Which of the following is a precaution that should be taken while performing the reverse crunch exercise?

When performing self-myofascial release of the adductors, the focus should be on foam rolling what location on the body?

Which of the following intensity ranges best describes someone just moving into a zone 3 cardiorespiratory training workout?

When performing an active kneeling hip flexor stretch, internally rotating the rear leg will place a greater stretch on which of the following muscles?

Which term is defined as the normal extensibility of all soft tissues that allow the full range of motion of a joint?

Which of the following has the objective of uniformly strengthening the deep and superficial muscles that stabilize, align, and move the trunk of the body?

Which resistance training system has a client perform an exercise to failure, lowers the weight by a percentage, then continues with more reps?

Which training system is specifically performed using either a light-to-heavy or heavy-to-light format?

A client is using a peripheral heart action system. He performs overhead presses for his first exercise. What would be an appropriate exercise to use next?

What is the best training system for someone with limited time who wants to alter body composition?

Which resistance training system is often used by bodybuilders and mass-dominant athletes like football players?

What training system is used when a client performs 3 sets of curls, followed by three sets of overhead presses, then followed by 3 sets of push-ups?

Which training system alternates upper and lower body exercises to help promote efficient blood flow?

Which muscle is typically shortened with pronation distortion syndrome?

Which muscle is typically shortened with upper crossed syndrome?

Which muscles are typically lengthened with lower crossed syndrome?

Which muscles are typically lengthened with pronation distortion syndrome?

Which muscles are typically lengthened with upper crossed syndrome?

Which muscles are typically shortened with lower crossed syndrome?

What possible injury is MOST associated with pronation distortion syndrome?

What possible injury is MOST associated with upper crossed syndrome?

What possible injury is MOST associated with lower crossed syndrome?

What do individuals with pronation distortion syndrome experience?

What do individuals with pronation distortion syndrome experience?

What do individuals with upper crossed syndrome experience?

What do individuals with upper crossed syndrome experience?

What do individuals with lower crossed syndrome experience?

What do individuals with upper crossed syndrome experience?

In the overhead squat assessment lateral view, which muscle(s) is probably overactive when a client has excessive forward lean?

If you observe arms falling forward in the overhead squat assessment lateral view, which muscles would benefit the most from strengthening exercises?

If you observe the low back arching in the overhead squat assessment lateral view, which muscles might be overactive?

In the overhead squat assessment anterior view, which muscles might be underactive if a client's knees move inward?

In the overhead squat assessment anterior view, which muscles require stretching if a client's feet turn out?

In the overhead squat assessment anterior view, which muscles might be underactive if a client's feet turn out?

In the overhead squat assessment lateral view, an overactive hip flexor complex can cause which compensation?

In the overhead squat assessment lateral view, what movement compensation can an underactive rotator cuff allow to happen?

In the overhead squat assessment lateral view, which movement compensation can be caused by an overactive latissimus dorsi?

In cardio stage training which stage uses only zone 1 heart rate training zone?

In cardio stage training which stage is only for advanced clients?

In cardio stage training which stage has 1 minute intervals in HR zone 3?

In cardio stage training, in which stage is 86-95% HRmax intensity reached?

In cardio stage training which stage is associated with walking and light jogging?

In cardio stage training which stage is often used during the strength level of the OPT model?

In cardio stage training which stage reaches 17-19 on the RPE scale?

In cardio stage training which stage is often associated with the power level of the OPT model?

In cardio stage training which stage has the client reach 12-13 on the RPE scale?

In cardio stage training in which stage is 65-75% HRmax intensity reached?

In cardio stage training in which stage is 76-85% HRmax intensity reached?

In the integrated flexibility continuum which flexibility improves extensibility of soft tissue, increases neuromuscular efficiency, includes self-myofascial release, and active-isolated stretching?

Which integrated flexibility continuum is used during phase 2-4 of the OPT model?

Which integrated flexibility continuum is used during phase 5 of the OPT model?

In cardio stage training which stage alternates between heart rate zones 1 & 2?

In the integrated flexibility continuum which flexibility is designed to increase joint ROM, improve muscle imbalances, correct altered joint motion, includes self-myofascial release (foam roll) techniques and static stretching?

In the integrated flexibility continuum which flexibility maintains integrated, multiplanar soft tissue extensibility, optimal neuromuscular control, uses self myofascial release and dynamic stretching?

Which integrated flexibility continuum is used during phase I of the OPT model?

Which item is not true of Self-myofascial release?

Which item is not true of active-isolated stretching?

In which flexibility training do you roll the entire length of a muscle until a tender spot is found?

Which item is not true of dynamic stretching?

Which flexibility training uses agonist and synergists to move a joint into a range of motion?

Which flexibility training uses 10-15 reps of each exercise?

Which flexibility training uses body's momentum and force production?

In which flexibility training do you hold pressure on the tender spot for at least 30 seconds?

Which flexibility training breaks up adhesions in the muscles?

Which flexibility is used with SMR for all cool downs?

Which flexibility uses multiplanar lunges?

Which flexibility uses active supine biceps femoris stretch?

Which flexibility uses foam rollers and balls?

In which flexibility training method would you hold each stretch for 1-2 seconds for 5-10 reps?

An efficient core is necessary for maintaining proper muscle balance throughout the kinetic chain.

If the movement system of the core is weak, but the stabilization system is strong, forces are not transferred or used properly.

The quadratus lumborum is part of the core musculature's...

The internal obliques are part of the core musculature's...

The psoas major is part of the core musculature's...

The latissimus dorsi is part of the core musculature's...

The transverse abdominis is part of the core musculature's...

The diaphragm is part of the core musculature's...

The quadriceps are part of the core musculature's...

The external obliques are part of the core musculature's...

The gluteus medius are part of the core musculature's...

The rectus abdominis are part of the core musculature's...

The hip flexors are part of the core musculature's...

The rectus abdominis are part of the core musculature's...

The rectus abdominis are part of the core musculature's...

The lumbar multifidus are part of the core musculature's...

The adductor complex is part of the core musculature's...

The hamstring complex is part of the core musculature's...

The pelvic floor muscles are part of the core musculature's...