Anti-Money Laundering Quiz

1. Customer identification and verification, which includes ascertaining and verifying the client’s information is abbreviated
SIV
CIV
VIC
2. An SAR must be filed within 1-3 business days to the Financial Intelligence Centre. What does SAR stand for?
Suspicious Annexure Report
Single Addendum Report
Suspicious Activity Report
3. The PACOTPAA governs the financing of terrorist and proliferation activities, and provides for targeted financial sanctions measures. What Act does the PACOTPAA reference?
Prevention and Combating of Terrorism and Proliferation Activities Act
Prevention and Combating of Transformation and Political Activities Act
Prevention of Organised Crime Act
4. Money laundering is performed in ____________________.
Segments
Stages
Sectors
5. __________________ is the third phase in the money laundering cycle, involving the use the funds to buy goods and services without attracting attention.
Involvement
Indulgence
Integration
6. The process of moving funds through a series of financial transactions with the goal of making it difficult to trace the source of origin is referred to as _______________.
Lending
Layering
Lowering
7. Bribery is considered a form of ___________________.
Non-receipts laundering
Non-cash laundering
Non-binary laundering
8. Current estimates are that there are approximately U$1 trillion in criminal assets hiding within the global economy at any given time. _____________ is a key difference between money laundering and terrorist financing
Social and Environmental constructs
Volume of Assets
Terrorism as a political issue
9. _____________________ is a mode of terrorist financing, allowing financiers to move large amounts of physical cash.
Cash couriers
Hawala
Gold smuggling
10. The __________________ attacks prompted the FATF to extend its mandate to include proliferation financing monitoring.
September 15
September 11
September 21
11. There is no agreed definition for the financing of proliferation activities.
True
False
12. The key principles of an effective risk-based approach are to _____________, _______________, and ________________ risks.
Identify, Assess, Report
Monitor, Report, Assess
Identify, Monitor, Assess
13. What form of due diligence should be applied for a sanctioned individual?
EDD
SDD
CDD
14. What form of due diligence is required for an experienced medical practitioner who wishes to open his/her own practice? (assume there is only one source of income).
CDD
EDD
SDD
15. External audit assumes the _________________ line of defence in a risk-based approach.
Third
Fourth
First
16. Client facing staff must _________________ risk management policies to reduce the impact of ML/TF/PF risks.
Formulate
Apply
Govern
17. Select the individual who is not a Prominent Influential Person
Logistics Manager at NamPost
Minister of Foreign Affairs
Govenor of Bank of Namibia
18. PIPs are not inherently high-risk customers.
True
False
19. The _______________ and _______________ of a PIP should be subjected to enhanced scrutiny.
Family members, close associates
Business partners, bankers
Accountants, managers
20. What form of due diligence should be applied in respect of the niece of a Supreme Court judge who is employed as a cleaner?
SDD
CDD
EDD
21. What form of due diligence should be applied in respect of a business partner of the Ministry of Finance, who is recently appointed as special development finance advisor?
EDD
SDD
CDD
22. Targeted Financial Sanctions are intended to ________________ or ____________ towards designated individuals/entities.
Freeze funds, prohibit the availing of funds
Direct funds, prohibit the availing of funds
Thaw funds, prohibit the availing of funds
23. TFS measures must be applied where there is a ________________ match against the UN Sanctions Consolidated lists.
Negative
Positive
Neutral
24. UN Sanctions screening must be performed _________________ the disbursement of any funds to a client.
During
After
Before
25. UN Sanctions screening must be performed on clients and their _______________.
Beneficial owners
Authorised representatives
Directors
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