Fist Cert MQF 76-183

Which adjustment technique mathematically ensures FFE rounds will be within 50 meters of the target.

_________________________ is best when responsive fires are required and the observer is experienced in the adjustment of fire.

__________________ is best used on danger close missions and other missions requiring the observer to make small adjustments to bring fires onto the target in order to minimizing collateral damage.

Normally, the observer using successive bracketing requests FFE when they split a ______ meter bracket. Under certain conditions when the PER of the weapon is _____ meters or larger, an observer is justified in calling for FFE when a _____ meter bracket is split.

The objective of impact registration is to get spottings of ________________________________ along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 25 meters apart.

T/F: If PER is greater than or equal to 25 meters the objective of impact registration is to get spottings of four rounds (two overs and two shorts) along the observer-target line from rounds fired with the same data or from rounds fired with data 50 meters apart.

During a registration mission spottings of target hit or range correct count as spottings of _______________________.

During impact registration the observer spots the rounds for deviation to the nearest one mil and brings the rounds onto the observer-target line before ___________________

During impact registration when the 50 meter range bracket has been established, ________ rounds are fired with data 25 meters in the direction opposite that of the last range spotting.

T/F: During impact registration range refinement, if the registration point is nearer the last round(s) fired, no range refinement is necessary to move the impact toward the registration point.

If the registration point is equidistant between the two sets of rounds, the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD _____ or DROP _____ from the last data fired.

If the registration point is nearer the pair of rounds at the opposite end of the bracket, (instead of the last round) the observer determines the range refinement to be ADD ____ or DROP _____.

What form would an observer use to keep track of the rounds and spottings in relation to the registration point?

In registration, deviation refinement is determined by adding the deviation spottings of the rounds establishing the two over and two short (this may include two, three, or four deviation spottings). Then ____________ the total of the deviation spottings by the number of rounds (two, three, or four) to get an average deviation. Express the result to the nearest mil. The average deviation multiplied by the observer-target factor equals the correction, which the observer expresses to the nearest _____________.

Upon achieving the objective of registration the observer has recorded the following usable deviation spottings. What should the observer send to the FDC for deviation refinement? Round Spotting OT Factor 6 7 Right 2 7 15 Right 8 5 Left 9 3 Right

Mortar registration procedures are identical to the impact registration procedures for artillery. The exception is that once a ___ meter range bracket has been split and the last round fired is within ___ meters of the target, the observer sends refinement corrections to the FDC and ends the mission. Make range corrections to the nearest 25 meters. Only ___ round over and ___ round short are required.

In the event the Excalibur projectile does not acquire adequate GPS signal, or experiences a reliability failure in flight, the round is designed to

What munition is available to utilize with the 120mm mortar that minimizes collateral damage and reduces the number of rounds required to defeat targets?

What fuze can be added to 155mm HE to provide near precision?

The illumination shell is a base ejection projectile containing a flare attached to a parachute. What is NOT a use of Illumination?

What is the initial height of burst for 155mm M485A2 Illumination?

What is the initial height of burst for 105mm Illumination?

What is the initial height of burst for 120mm Illumination?

Use the ____________________ pattern when an area requires more illumination than can be furnished by one gun illumination.

In order for an observer to achieve as few as possible shadows during an illumination mission they should request ___________________ in the call for fire.

Illumination range and deviation correction of less than ________ meters should not be made.

What is the minimum illumination HOB correction?

During an ILLUM mission if the flare burns out 60 mils above the ground and the OT factor is 2, what correction should the Observer send for HOB?

During an ILLUM mission your round burns on the ground for 13 seconds. You are observing 155mm M485A2 illumination and the rate of decent is 5 meters per second. What HOB correction do you send?

True / False: The four types of smoke are obscuring, marking, incendiary, and deception.

__________ is a smoke curtain used on the battlefield between threat observation points and friendly units to mask friendly forces, positions, and activities.

____________ is placed on or near the threat to suppress threat observers and to minimize their vision.

Use the quick smoke mission to obscure areas from ____ meters up to ____ meters wide.

True / False: A quick smoke mission requires the observer to send length, maneuver target line, wind direction, and duration in the call for fire.

During a quick smoke mission with shell smoke (HC) use HE in adjustment until a ____ meter bracket is split. The observer then requests shell smoke. Fire one smoke round, and make any necessary corrections. Then request FFE.

Final protective fires may be any distance from the friendly position, but is normally within _____ to ______ meters of friendly positions.

True / False: During multiple missions the observer should use the assigned target number followed by corrections.

A linear irregularly shaped target requires the observer to send target description, length, width, and ________ in the third transmission of the call for fire.

Attitude is sent to the nearest _______ and less than 3200 mils.

What is the max range of the M777 155mm standard HE?

What is the max range of the M224 60mm mortar?

What is the max range of the M252 81mm mortar?

What is the max range of the M120 120mm mortar?

What is the max range of the M982 Excalibur?

A _____ operation is a coordinated attack using a combination of FW and Army RW assets normally supported by artillery or NSFS. Electronic warfare (EW), air defense artillery, and intelligence, surveillance, and reconnaissance assets also may support. To maximize the effectiveness of a ______, fires are integrated, mutually supportive, and synergistic, not simply deconflicted.

Size, activity, location, time, remarks (SALT-R) is the standard format for passing BDA information. Minimum requirements include _______________________.

JTACs and FAC(A)s can use ________ to develop and correlate targeting data, mark targets, and provide terminal guidance operations.

What is line 8 of the JFO target brief?

True / False: When communicating direct to a CAS platform and a JTAC or FAC(A) is not available the observer must state “I am not a JTAC” or “I am a JFO”.

True / False: After receiving the army attack aviation call for fire from the ground forces, the aircrews are not required to identify the location of the friendly element and the target prior to conducting an engagement.

True / False: Army Attack Aviation and Special Operations Forces (SOF) gunship use the same call for fire format

How would an observer maintain positive control of SOF Gunship or Army Attack Aviation during engagement?

True / False: Clearance to fire is the transmission of the Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire unless “at my command” or “danger close” has been stated.

If “danger close” has been announced in an Aviation/SOF gunship call for fire what else must be passed to the attacking aircraft?

What fixed wing aircraft is equipped with 30mm, 105mm, and small diameter bombs?

Which fixed wing aircraft can be equipped with 20mm, 2.75 inch rockets, AGM 65, GBU, and GP bombs?

True / False: The AH-64 is equipped with 30mm, 2.75 inch rockets, and AGM-176 Hellfire.

What UAS can be equipped with GBU and Hellfire?

What brevity term is sighting of a FRIENDLY aircraft or ground position?

What brevity term acknowledges sighting a specified reference point (either visually or via sensor)?

What brevity term is sighting a target, non-friendly aircraft, or enemy position?

Brevity: Acquisition of laser designation or the platform is laser spot tracker (LST) capable.

Brevity: The laser designator system is inoperative

Brevity: Mark / marking a target by infrared (IR) pointer.

Brevity: Oscillate an IR pointer in a figure eight about a target.

Brevity: Once the aircrew sees the IR energy and is able to discern between the friendly and target end of the pointer, a ____________________ call may be made.

Brevity: Specified surface target or object has been acquired and is being tracked with an onboard sensor.

Brevity: FRIENDLY air-to-surface missile launch.

Brevity: No ordnance remaining.

___________ is the unintentional or incidental injury or damage to persons or objects that are not lawful military targets.

True / False: Regardless of friendly force posture, commanders, JTACs, and aircrew will refer to the Standing posture column and use this distance to determine when danger close procedures apply.

The mission of the Field Artillery is to __________________ the enemy with integrated fires to enable maneuver commanders to dominate in unified land operations.

Field artillery contributes to unified land operations by ___________ in space and time on single or multiple targets with precision, near-precision, and area fire capabilities.

Actions executed to deliberately mislead adversary military, paramilitary, or violent extremist organization decision makers, thereby causing the adversary to take specific actions (or inactions) that will contribute to the accomplishment of the friendly mission.

Tactical mission task that occurs when an enemy force has temporarily or permanently lost the physical means or the will to fight.

Slow the time of arrival of enemy forces or capabilities or alter the ability of the enemy or adversary to project forces or capabilities.

Tactical mission task that physically renders an enemy force combat-ineffective until it is reconstituted.

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