A320 systems
In manual mode, who or what drives the outflow valve full open during landing?
The pilot using the MAN V/S CTL switch
The active Cabin Pressure Controller
The pilot using the DITCHING pb
The forward cargo ventilation system includes two isolation valves that:
Cannot be controlled from the cockpit
Allow only cabin air to ventilate the cargo compartment if closed
Close automatically if smoke is detected
Following a pressurization SYSTEM 1 fault:
Master caution is activated and CAM actions must be taken by the crew
System 2 must be selected by the crew
System 2 takes over automatically without crew action
The safety valves are operated:
Pneumatically
Hydraulically
Electrically
The RAM air switch should be used:
At any time
When diff press is greater than 1 psi
Only when diff press is less than 1 psi
Only after outflow valve is fully opened
When the landing elevation is set to AUTO, the landing elevation is sent to the controller from:
Fmgc
Fiu
Adirs
The pack flow control valve closes automatically in case of:
Pack overheat, engine fire push button released, engine start, ditching p/b pressed
Bleed valve failure, pack outlet pressure increase
A and b
During ground operation, the outflow valve is:
Fully open
Fully closed
Positioned according to FMGS demands
The LOC P/B on the FCU is pressed to arm the LOC modThis mode is used for:
Performing a published localizer approach
Tracking a VOR beam during an approach
X
In cruise, lateral A/P orders are executed by:
Ailerons and spoilers
Ailerons and rudder
Rudder and spoilers
Ailerons, rudder, spoilers
What does a triple click mean during an ILS approach?
A level 3 warning to the crew
Landing capability downgrading warning
Flaps are set at 3 and the l/g is not down
What are the basic modes of AP/FD:
V/s and HDG
ALT and NAV
SPD and HDG
The FAC computes rudder travel limit:
Only when AP is engaged
At any time
Only at low speed
After a dual engine generator's failure, EMER ELEC config triggered and emergency gen supplies the AFT:
FMGC 1 only is available (nav function only)
FMGC 2 only is available
Both FMGC are available
The flight guidance function are:
Autopilot, flight plan, A/THR
Autopilot, performance, flight plan
Flight management, autopilot, A/THR
Autopilot, flight director, A/THR
When the A/P is engaged, the rudder is normally controlled by:
The FMGC
The FAC
The SEC
The SEC
What does the"TOO STEEP PATH AHEAD" amber message on MCDU means?
The A/C is approaching a descent segment between two constraints waypoints that are impossible to fly with the planned descent speed and half speed brake extended.
The descent may become too steep and the speed may reach MMO or VMO.
Moving the sidestick or extending the flaps.
Moving the thrust levers or using the speed brakes.
To display localizer and glide slope indications on the PFD, you need:
Press the LS p/b on the EFIS control panel.
Press the LOC pushbutton on the FCU
P/b on the FCU.
To switch from speed to Mach on FCU, you need to :
Push the speed knob.
Push the Speed/Mach p/b.
� Push the HDG-V/S / TRK-FPA p/b.
Select the true statement regarding the FMA:
Green display an active mode and white display an engaged system.
Cyan display an active mode armed.
White display an armed mode.
During takeoff, to leave SRS MODE
You have to reach the acceleration altitude inserted in MCDU.
You have to select speed on FCU
Both answers are correct
During descent in OPEN DES mode, pilot selects an altitude higher than aircraft altitude
Vertical modę switches to V/S (present V/S of aircraft)
Vertical modę switches to OP CLB
Vertical modę remains OPEN DES
In clean configuration, if approach phase is activated and confirmed on PERF page:
Speed reduces to 250 kt
Managed speed reduces to Green Dot.
ILS capture mode is engaged.
What component unrelated to the CVR must be selected ON for a successful CV test?
Parking brake
RMP1
Cockpit speaker
Which position of the INT/RAD switch must be used with care since it creates a "hot mike" for interphone communications?
INT
Neutral
RAD
In the event of a failed ACP, how can the pilot continue to make ACP selections?
No pilot action is required. The failed ACP is automatically replaced with ACP 3
The failed ACP must be reset by selecting the ACP OFF then ON
The failed ACP can be replaced by ACP 3 using the AUDIO SWITCHING selector
If RMP 2 fails
The whole system is inoperative
VHF2 and HF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
All com systems can be controlled by any other RMP
Only VHF2 frequencies cannot be controlled
Can you transmit on VHF and the PA at the same time:
Never
Yes by using stick PTT command and PA key
Yes by pressing RAD toggle switch and PA key
From lowest to highest, what is the priority order for normal electrical power?
GEN(engine), APU GEN, EXT PWR
EXT PWR, APU GEN, GEN (engine)
GEN (engine), EXT PWR, APU GEN
In the normal configuration, what bus powers the AC ESS BUS?
AC BUS 2
AC ESS SHED BUS
AC BUS 1
During the Preliminary Cockpit Preparation, the BAT ps are selected to OFF to conduct a voltage check. What is the minimum voltage for a successful battery check?
Greater than or equal to 25.5 volts
Greater than 26.5 volts
Greater than 25.5 volts
What cockpit lighting is available during the emergency electrical configuration?
F/O's dome light, captain's main panel flood lights, and the standby compass light
F/O's dome light and the standby compass light
Dome lights only
Each aircraft generator (engine and APU can supply up to 90 KVA while the emergency generator supplies how much power?
45 kVA
5 kVA
15 kVA
AC ESS BUS is normally supplied by:
EMERGENCY GENERATOR
AC BUS 1
STATIC INVERTER
AC BUS 2
The external power has priority over the APU gen:
Yes
No
In case of TR1 and TR2 failure :
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2, DC BAT BUS are lost
AC ESS BUS, AC ESS SHED BUS are lost
DC ESS BUS is lost
On the EMER ELEC PWR panel, a fault light illuminates in red under the label. What does it mean?
RAT is not extended
Emergency generator is supplying but AC ESS bus is not powered
Emergency generator is not supplying power when AC BUS 1 and 2 are not powered
In cold aircraft configuration (no ac and no de supply), where can the batteries voltage can be checked?
On the ECAM ELEC page
There is no indication
On the ELEC overhead panel
DC BAT BUS can be supplied by:
DC BUS 1 or BATTERIES
DC BUS 1, DC BUS 2 or BATTERIES
DC BUS 2 or BATTERIES
In case of EMER ELEC config, why is the CAM asking you to press the BUS TIE p/b to "Off
To separate both sides of the electrical system.
To connect both sides of the electrical system.
To switch both generators to the opposite side AC BUS.
To connect both sides of the electrical system.
If an ENG FIRE pb is pushed:
AGENT 1 discharges automatically and AGENT 2 is armed
AGENT 1 and AGENT 2 are armed
AGENT 1 only is armed
During the exterior preflight, the pilot observes the illumination of the APU FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nosewheel) and hears the external warning horn followed by the APU emergency shutdown. Outside the cockpit, the pilot must do what to discharge the APU fire bottle?
Push the FIRE light on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
Nothing. On the ground only, the APU shuts down and automatically discharges the APU fire bottle
Push the APU SHUT OFF pb on the external power panel (near the nosewheel)
With reference to the cargo compartment fire extinguishing, which statement is true?
There is one fire bottle for each cargo compartment
There is one fire bottle that can be discharged into one compartment only and both DISC lights illuminate when either FWD or AFT pb is pushed
There is one fire bottle for each cargo compartment
When engine fire p/b is released out, which valve is affected?
LP FUEL SHUT OFF VALVE + HYD + BLEED + PACK + ELEC GEN
Fuel valve
HYDRAULIC FIRE SHUT OFF VALVE
When the APU fire p/b is released out, the:
APU generator is de activated
APU generator is disconnected
APU generator is energized
How is an APU fire on ground normally extinguished?
From APU fire panel
Automatically
From external power panel
In normal law, if one sidestick is rapidly pulled back, can the aircraft exceed the maximum "G Load"?
No. The load factor limitation overrides sidestick commands to avoid excessive "G loads"
No. The sidestick commands are deactivated for five seconds above 2.0Gs
Yes. The pilot should avoid rapid sidestick commands
In alternate law:
Pitch trim is automatic
Roll is the same as normal law (roll rate)
Turn coordination is automatic
The Alpha Lock feature of the Slat and Flap Control Computers (SFCCs) prevents:
The extension of flaps at a speed greater than the maximum flap extension speed
The retraction of the flaps during a high angle of attack/ low speed situation
The retraction of the slats during a high angle of attack/low speed situation
In NORMAL LAW, the STALL WARNING is activated:
AOA corresponding to STALL WARNING cannot be reached in NORMAL LAW.
When a MAX is reached.
When a PROT is reached.
Which of the following functions is carried out by the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS?
Maintaining a safe flight envelope.
Simulation of artificial feel for the SIDE Sticks.
Conversion of Rudder Pedal inputs into Electrical Control Signals for the Rudder.
What are the different laws in which the FLIGHT CONTROL COMPUTERS can operate?
Normal law, alternate law, back up law.
Normal law, alternate law, direct law.
Automatic law, ground law, flight law.
What do you command in the pitch channel when you deflect the SIDESTICK in normal flight?
Attitude
Load Factor
Pitch Rate
After climbing with climb power set (no A/THR) you LEVEL OFF but do not reduce power far enough. What happens?
On reaching the selected cruising speed, auto thrust engages and takes over speed control.
The Over speed Warning activates. You must take corrective action.
High Speed Protection activates at VMO +4 kt. Pitch increases automatically and VMO is maintained.
What happens when both pilots move their SIDESTICK in the same direction?
Both inputs are added, up to a maximum deflection.
Both inputs are added, without limitation.
Nothing
Can you override the HIGH SPEED PROTECTION by applying full forward SIDESTICK?(Normal law)
Yes, pilot input always has priority.
No
Yes, if both SIDESTICKs are moved full forward.
You are in manual flight. After descent, you LEVEL OFF, but leave the power in IDLWhat happens next?
The aircraft maintains altitude until reaching V PROT, then goes automatically into descent.
The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until it stalls.
The aircraft maintains altitude (and trims) until the stick shaker activates.
All flight controls are:
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated.
Electrically controlled and hydraulically actuated with mechanical reversion capability.
Electrically controlled with mechanical back up control and hydraulically actuated.
Pushing the " RESET" p/b on the rudder trim control panel:
Resets the rudder trim to zero degree.
Resets the rudder trim to the value displayed on the position indicator.
Resets the rudder trim to the last position prior to AP activation.
During refueling, the AUTO FEED FAULT message is displayed on the E/D because a significant amount of fuel is in the center tank and the wing tanks are not full. What action is required by the crew?
Call maintenance to fix or defer the malfunction
Reset the system with the MODE SEL pb on the overhead FUEL panel
No maintenance action is required since refueling is in process
When do the fuel used (F USED) indications on the FUEL page automatically reset to zero?
Engine shutdown
Engine start
After landing
If the BLUE electric pump malfunctions and the BLUE ELEC PUMP pb is selected OFF:
The PTU pressurizes the BLUE system
The Blue system shuts down (unpressurized)
The RAT deploys automatically and powers the BLUE system
Which of the following criteria is true for inhibiting the PTU between engine starts?
On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches and nosewheel steering connected
On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches), parking brake off and nosewheel steering connected
On the ground with staggered ENG MASTER switches, parking brake on or nowheel steering disconnected
Which hydraulic system provides pressure for braking under normal conditions?
Yellow
Green
Blue
Engine anti-ice is applied to what component of the engine?
The nacelle leading edges
The spinner and nacelle leading edges
The fan and nacelle leading edges
What is the airspeed limit for operation of the windscreen wipers?
250 kt
230 kt
200 kt
If electrical power supply to the wing anti-ice valve fails, the wing anti-ice valve:
Closes
Opens
Remains in its current position
Which hydraulic system does the Landing Gear Control and Interface Unit (LGCIU) use to extend and retract the landing gear?
Green
Yellow
Blue
When does the alternate braking system become operational/active?
The failure of the Alternate Brake Control Unit (ABCU)
The failure of the green hydraulic system
The failure of the autobrakes
If selected ON, which exterior lights automatically extinguish with the landing gear retracted?
Nose lights (taxi and takeoff)
Wing lights
Landing lights
The emergency lights can be activated from the flight attendant station:
Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the ARM position
Only if the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel is in the OFF position
Regardless of which position the EMER LT switch on the overhead SIGNS panel
The cabin oxygen masks automatically deploy ("drop"when the cabin altitude exceeds:
10 000 ft
14 000 ft
12 500 ft
Which of the following statements best describe the use of engine bleed air
The Bleed Monitoring Computers (BMCs) open the HP valve when IP air is insufficient to meet system demand. HP air replaces IP air as the source of bleed air.
The BMCs use HP air to augment IP air when necessary. HP and IP bleed air are used simultaneously during high demand.
The BMCs only open the HP valve during ground operations
If engine 1 bleed valve fails in the closed position, engine anti-ice is:
Unaffected since engine anti-ice is provided by hot bleed air supply that is independent of the pneumatic system
Provided through electric heating
Unavailable to that engine
If the engines and APU are running with the APU bleed valve open, the BMCs:
Close the engine bleed valves giving priority to APU bleed air
Close the APU bleed valve and opens the engine bleed valves giving priority to engine bleed air
Open the engine bleed valves and allow the engine and APU bleed air to pressurize the pneumatic system simultaneously
All of the following are required to start the APU except:
APU MASTER and START switches to ON
EXT PWR pb selected to ON
BAT pbs selected to AUTO
APU bleed air may be used for all of the following except:
Engine starting
Pack operation
Wing ant-ice
Which of the following is true concerning FADEC?
Protects the engine from exceeding ET limits during automatic starts on the ground only
Protects the engine from exceeding ET limits during all automatic starts
Protects the engine from exceeding ET limits during all automatic and manual engine starts
If the ENG MODE selector is moved to the CRANK position:
The engine will motor when the overhead ENG MAN START pb is selected ON
Fuel and ignition are inhibited
The engine will begin to motor immediately with fuel and ignition inhibited
Which of the following is true?
FADEC will only prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in reverse thrust
FADEC will always prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits and EGT limits
FADE will prevent the engine from exceeding RPM limits in both forward and reverse thrust
On the ground with an engine shut down, can the pilot deploy that engine's thrust reverser blocker doors and translating sleeve from the cockpit?
Yes, as long as the YELLOW hydraulic system is pressurized
Yes, as long as GREEN hydraulic system is pressurized
No, the blocker doors and translating sleeve cannot be deployed on an inoperative engine from the cockpit
If Cabin Pressure Controller 1 fails, what occurs automatically provided no other abnormals are present?
Cabin Pressure Controller 2 activates
The manual mode activates
The outflow valve drives full open
If the LDG ELEV selector is in the AUTO position, the active Cabin Pressure Controller receives destination field elevation from what source?
ADIRS
FMS
ACARS
A return to the departure airport is required immediately after takeoff. Which statement is true regarding automatic pressurization?
The active pressure controller automatically returns the cabin altitude to departure field elevation
The outflow valve remains in its last position
The pilot must select the manual mode (MODE SEL pb to MAN)
Which of the following statements best describes the function of the safety valves?
They prevent excessive positive differential pressure only
They prevent excessive positive or negative differential pressure
They prevent excessive negative differential pressure only
An emergency call from the cabin results in the flashing of what ACP legend?
MECH
ATT
CALL
The red disk on the outside of the fuselage adjacent to the APU compartment indicates:
The APU fire bottle has discharged due to over pressure
The APU fire bottle has not been discharged due to over pressure
The APU fire bottle requires servicing
The crew should expect the red SMOKE light on the CARGO SMOKE panel:
To extinguish after discharging the fire bottle
To remain illuminated even if the source of the smoke is extinguished after discharging the fire bottle
To flash indicating the source of the smoke is still present after discharging the fire bottle
The pilot is hand flying the aircraft in normal law and initiates a 30 degree bank. Which of the following is true?
Beyond 25 degrees of bank, sidestick pressure must be continuously applied to maintain the desired bank angle
If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, the aircraft will maintain 30 degrees of bank indefinitely
If the sidestick is released at 30 degrees of bank, positive spiral stability returns the bank angle to 25 degrees
Which of the following statements is NOT true about rudder control?
In normal law, the FACs provide turn coordination and yaw dampening without rudder pedal deflection
Mechanical control of the rudder does not require hydraulic power
The FACs provide rudder limiting based on airspeed
If flaps FULL is selected with the speedbrakes extended:
The speedbrakes will automatically retract
The flaps will not extend until the speedbrakes are fully retracted
The flaps will extend and the speedbrakes remain extended. There will be an ECAM warning message
If the outer tank fuel transfer valves open in-flight, they are commanded closed:
By pushing the TRANSFER pb
Automatically during the refueling process
Automatically in-flight when all outer tank fuel has transferred
If a GREEN ENG 1 PUMP failure occurs:
The PTU transfers YELLOW system fluid to operate the GREEN system
The PTU automatically pressurizes the GREEN system without transferring any fluid
The PTU transfers BLUE system fluid to operate the GREEN system
Which of the following best describes the YELLOW hydraulic system after pushing the ENG 2 FIRE pb?
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU transfers GREEN system fluid to operate the YELLOW system
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU operates the YELLOW system
ENG 2 PUMP deactivated and ENG 2 FIRE valve closed. The PTU does not operate the YELLOW system
In addition to inhibiting the PTU between engine starts; it is also inhibited during what?
YELLOW ELEC PUMP pb selected to ON
Engine failure
Cargo door operation
When is the BLUE hydraulic system pressurized with the BLUE ELEC PUMP in AUTO?
After selecting the BLUE ELEC PUMP to ON after engine start
Automatically, after the first engine start
Automatically, after both engines are started
If electrical power supply to the engine anti-ice valve fails, the engine anti-ice valve:
Closes
Opens
Remains in its current position
Which hydraulic system does the alternate braking system use
Green
Yellow
Blue
The crew performs a landing with autobrakes selected to MED. What triggers the application of the autobrakes?
The signal to extend the spoilers
The application of the brake pedals by the pilot
Reverse thrust is selected
When illuminated, the overhead emergency lights and EXIT signs are powered by either the bus or what other power source?
AC BUS 1
BAT BUS
Internal Batteries
A fast alignment occurs by selecting the rotary MODE selector from NAV to OFF and back to NAV within hon many seconds?
10
5
3
ADIRU # 2 normally supplies ADR and IR information for which displays?
Captain's PFD and first officer's ND
First officer's PFD and ND
Captain's PFD and ND
At the gate, if the ADIRUs are powered by the aircraft batteries, all of the following occur except?
The ON BAT light on the ADIRS panel illuminates
ECAM ADIRS ON BAT fault message is generated
The external horn is activated
In the AUTO position, the XBLEED (crossbleed) valve will:
Open when the APU bleed valve opens
Normally be open
Open if a leak is detected
The wings contain what type of bleed leak detection?
Single loop
Dual loop
Triple lindy
During an automatic start in-flight, FADE provides all of the following except:
Abnormal start indications
N1 and N2 limits protection
Abort authority
If performing a manual engine start (overhead ENG MAN START pb ON):
FADE opens the start valve and provides ignition and fuel flow 30 seconds after the ENG MASTER switch is selected ON
Ignition and fuel flow occur when the respective ENG MASTER switch is selected ON
FADEC only opens and closes the start valve
In the event of an engine flame-out:
Continuous ignition is only activated by selecting the ENG MODE selector to IGN/START
FADE automatically provides continuous ignition on both engines
Continuous ignition is unavailable
During an automatic start of engine 1, the crew notices only igniter B is powered. Is this normal?
No. Contact maintenance and advise igniter A is inoperative
Yes. FADE alternates igniters for automatic engine starts
Yes. FADEC only uses igniter B to start engine 1
Which of the following is true?
Each engine shares oil with its respective IDG
Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by fuel
Each IDG has its own oil supply which is cooled by ambient air
Once activated, how can you cancel the EVAC alert from the cockpit?
Horn shut off
Command switch
OFF switch
Only able to deactivate from cabin.• Only able to deactivate from cabin.
When the door arming lever is in the ARMED position, opening the door from the outside will:
Automatically deploy and inflate the evacuation slide.
Disarm door
Only arm the slide
The power assist will rapidly open the door
The message OUTER TK FUEL XFRD appears in the MEMO. What does this mean?
It is a reminder to show that a transfer valve is open.
Fuel is transferring from the center tank to the inner tank.
It is a reminder to open the outer tank transfer valve.
Fuel is transferring from the inner tank to the outer tank.
From which tanks will fuel gravity feed?
Outer cell of the wing tanks, inner cell of the wing tanks, and/or center tank.
Inner cell of the wing tanks, and center tank.
Outer cell of the wing tanks, and inner cell of the wing tanks.
The center tank only.
Which hydraulic systems) supply pressure to the landing gear system?
Green
Blue
Yellow and blue
Green and Blue
What does pushing the APPR push button do?
Arms the Flight Guidance system to capture a localiser and glide slope.
Arms managed navigation.
Allows the aircraft to slow to green dot speed.
Arms managed vertical navigation.
The weather radar image can be displayed on which modes of the ND?
All modes except Plan.
Rose VOR or Rose ILS.
Rose NAV or ARC.
Rose NAV or VOR.
On board the Wizz Air A-320 aircraft, there are ... identical ADIRUs and ... GPS receivers
2, 2
3, 2
3, 3
3, 1
The amber ON BAT light illuminates on the ADIRS panel:
Fast alignment is in progress.
When the aircraft battery supplies at least one IRS.
Both other answers are correct
Which is NOT a basic mode of GPWS?
Excessive rate of descent.
Excessive terrain closure rate.
Altitude loss after takeoff, or go-around.
Deviation above the glideslope.
At approximately what cabin altitude should the passenger oxygen masks drop?
12 500 ft
15 000 ft
10 000 ft
14 000
Approximately how long are the passenger oxygen generators able to produce oxygen?
15 minutes.
30 minutes.
20 minutes.
25 minutes.
The APU may be started up to what altitude?
The APU can be started at any altitude provided normal aircraft electrical power is available.
The APU can be started up to 35,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
The APU can be started up to 30,000 feet using only the aircraft batteries.
Both A and B are correct.
What happens to the cockpit door with electrical power failure?
It automatically locks.
It automatically unlocks.
None of the above
It operates normally on hot BAT BUS
What does illumination of the white SLIDE ARMED light represent on the main cabin door?
This indicates that the slide has properly inflated and is safe for use.
This indicates that the slide is armed and the slide will inflate if the door is opened from inside the aircraft.
This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed.
This indicates that the main cabin door has not been properly closed but the slide is properly armed.
How is it determined that the cockpit sliding window is closed and locked?
The red ring below the release button should not be in view.
The locking pin was placed in the forward position when the window was closed.
The red ring below the release button should be in view.
During a manual start, how is the start valve opened?
It is automatic once the ENG MASTER is placed to the ON position.
By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel.
By depressing the ENG MAN START pushbutton on the overhead panel while the ENG MODE selector is out of the NORM position.
If the lower CAM DU fails, is there a way to retrieve that information?
By pressing and holding the related systems page push button on the ECAM control panel, the page will be displayed on the UPPER ECAM.
By rotating the CAM/ND XFR switch on the switching panel, the lower CAM page will be transferred to either the Captain or FO's ND.
Both A and B wrong
Both A and B correct
After a single DMC failure, how could a crew member recover the display units?
None of the above
It is done automatically
Once a DMC has failed, the information is unrecoverable.
Rotate the EIS DMC switch on the switching panel to replace the failed DMC with DMC #3.
When pushing the APPR p/b on FCU:
LOC and GS modes are armed when performing ILS.
Approach phase is activated.
Speed automatically reduces to approach speed
{"name":"A320 systems", "url":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/QPREVIEW","txt":"In manual mode, who or what drives the outflow valve full open during landing?, The forward cargo ventilation system includes two isolation valves that:, Following a pressurization SYSTEM 1 fault:","img":"https://www.quiz-maker.com/3012/images/ogquiz.png"}
More Surveys
Make your own Survey
- it's free to start.
- it's free to start.