Diagnosis(6)
251. If a fracture of jaw bone is communicated to external environment, it is called :
Comminuted fracture
Compound fracture
Simple fracture
Transverse fracture
252. Le fort 3 fracture is also called :
Horizontal fracture
Pyramidal fracture
Transverse fracture
Green stick fracture
253. Inflammation of most or all para nasal sinuses simultaneously is described as :
pan sinusitis
Sinusitis
Para nasal sinusitis
Sinus thrombosis
254. Maxillary sinus infection of odontogenic origin is most commonly caused by :
Aerobic bacteria
Anaerobic bacteria
Fungal
Viral
255. Squestrum is a :
Necrotized bone
Newly formed bone
Vital bone
Reactive bone formation
256. The most common cause of cellulitis in face is :
Dental carie
Pericoronitis
Trauma
Antral infection
257. A diffuse inflammation of soft tissue that is not circumscribed is :
Abscess
Granuloma
Swelling
Cellulutis
258. A focal gross thickening of the periosteum with peripheral bone formation is :
Chronic osteomyelitis
Condencing osteitis
Garre`s osteomyelitis
Periostitis
259. The most common orgaeism associated with cellulitis is :
Streptococci
Staphylococci
Actinomyces
Lactobacillus
260. In a patient with bilateral dislocated fractures of the neck of the mandibular condyles one can expect the following clinical signs :
Anterior open bite
Inability to protrude the mandible
Inability to bring posterior molars into contact
Anterior open bite and Inability to protrude the mandible
261. Of the followings, which facial bone is most frequently fractured?:
Mandible
Maxilla
Nasal
Zygomatic
262. Which of the followings is a complication often open fracture?
Malunion
Nonunion
Infection
Crepitation
263. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except
Agitation
Universal distress signal
Coughing
Crowing
Hypoglycemia
264. The following are the signs and symptoms of the airway irritation and obstruction except
Crowing (partial obstruction)
Silence (complete obstruction)
Wheezing (To breathe with difficulty and noisily)
Cyanosis
Hypertension
The following are the airway equipment for medical emergencies except
Cotton role and gauze
Oxygen tank
Artificial airways and Face masks
Suction Machine and Suction Tubes
Laryngoscope set and Magill forceps
266. The right position is the one that is most comfortable for the patient of emergencies, which position is correct for cardiac arrest patient?
The patient needs to be flat on his or her back
Patients probably will want to sit up, which helps their ability to breathe
Place the patient horizontally with the feet slightly elevated
With the feet elevated slightly, the patient can receive a larger flow of blood to the head and thus stimulate the brain
267. The following are the critical airway management in unconscious patient except
The head is tilted back, and the chin is lifted
One hand is placed on the forehead, with two fingers of the other hand on the Mn to rotate the head back
The tongue is attached to the Mn so that when you pull the mandible forward, the tongue also moves forward
Opens the airway so the patient can breathe, or so you can breathe for the patient
Administration of fluid and adrenaline injection
268. The following are management of circulation for unconscious patient except
Maintain the head tilt and check for the carotid pulse
The carotid pulse is missed 40% of the time by medical personnel and paramedics
The pulse should be checked for 10 seconds
If a pulse is not felt, start compressions immediately
Administration of oxygen and fluid
Which of the following is wrong about the management of angina pectoris:
Written consent by the patient’s cardiologist is desirable
Appropriate premedication, usually 5–10 mg diazepam or 1,5–3 mg bromazepam orally, 1h before the surgical procedure may be helpful
Dental surgery in hospital, when the patient refers many episodes of angina pectoris
Large amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration
Short appointments, as painless as possible
270. Which of the following is the preventive measure recommended for patients with Rheumatic Heart Disease, except…
Premedication before the surgical procedure can be helpful
Avoidance of vasoconstrictors (or maximum concentration 1:100,000)
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in LA with particular importance of aspiration
Procedure the patient in the morning time
271. Which of the following is not the treatment medication for HBP (High Blood Pressure)?
Diuretics
Beta-blockers and Alpha-blockers
Vasoconstrictor
ACE inhibitors
Angiotensin antagonists
272. The following are the risks to patients with HBP (High Blood Pressure) in Exodontia except:
Stroke
Myocardial Infarctus
Post-operative swelling
Post-operative bleeding
273. Which of the following is not drug that causes hypotension?
Anti-anxiety medications
Vitamin C
Certain antidepressants (tricyclic antidepressants)
Diuretics
Painkillers
274. Which of the following is not the symptom of hypotension?
Dizziness or lightheadedness
Fainting (syncope)
Clear vision
Nausea
Rapid, shallow breathing
275. The following are the moderate allergy symptoms, except….
Skin Rash
Itchy, watery eyes
Congestion
Difficulty breathing
Apnea
276. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….?
Penicilline (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)
Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates
Insulin, Vaccines
Anticonvulsants
Metronidazole
277. The following are the medicines commonly cause an allergic reaction, except….?
PNC (such as Ampicillin, or Amoxicillin)
Sulfa medicines, Barbiturates
Insulin, Vaccines
Anticonvulsants
Erythromycins
278. Which of the following is not the common trigger of Anaphylaxis?
Foods
Insect’s sting
Pollens and other inhaled allergens
Substances can cause reactions are fish and latex
279. Among the following which is the rescue breathing in adult?
6 times/min
18 times/min
12 times/min
24 times/min
280. In patient on artificial ventilation the cycle of exhale air ventilation should be repeated of every:
20 secs
10 secs
5 secs
1 sec
281. To perform tracheoctomy entry should be made at the:
Cricothyroid ligament
Thyroid membrane
Thyroid notch
Cricoid cartilage
282. The primary hazard for unconscious patient in supine position is:
Tongue obstruction
Bronchospasm
Lanyngospasm
Aspiration
283. The best blood product administered preoperatively to patients with haemophilia A is:
Fresh frozen plasma
Factor IX concentrate
Whole blood
Factor VIII concentrate
284. A cardinal symptom of dehydration due to disturbance of fluid and electrolyte balance is:
Hyperthermia
Nausea
Polydipsia
None
285. Patient with idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) is most likely to have which of following postoperative complication:
Infection
Haemorrhage
Oedema
Alveolar osteitis
286. Which is the earliest sign of haemorrhagic shock?
Hypotension
Vasoconstriction
Tachycardia
Dyspnoea
287. Haemorrhagic shocks are the following characterizes, except…
Hypotension
Low blood volume
Increased pulse rate
Decrease pulse rate
288. Reye’s syndrome is caused by the long-term usage of:
Paracetamol
Aspirin
Ibuprofen
Nimesulide
289. The following are signs and symptoms of life-threatening asthma, except…
Cyanosis or respiratory rate < 8 per minute
Bradycardia (heart rate < 50 per minute)
Exhaustion, confusion, decreased conscious level
Abdominal pain and vomiting
290. The following are signs and symptoms of acute severe asthmatic, except….
Inability to complete sentences in one breath
Respiratory rate > 25 per minute
Tachycardia (heart rate > 110 per minute)
Convulsion and diarrhea
291. The following are signs and symptoms of acute Angina and MI, except….
Shortness of breath and increased respiratory rate
Skin becomes pale and clammy
Nausea and vomiting are common
Pulse might be weak and blood pressure might fall
Crushing pain in the right and across the front of chest
292. Which of the following is not true of key signs of cardiac arrest?
Loss of consciousness
Absence of breathing
Loss of pulse
Dilation of pupils
Tachycardia
293. Which of the following is wrong of the management of Hypoglycaemia with the unconscious patient?
Assess the patient
Administer 100% oxygen-flow rate: 10L/mn
Administer oral glucose (10–20 g), repeated, after10–15 minutes
Or Administer glucagon, 1 mg, IM
294. Which of the drug is not true for the management of Anxiety patient?
Midazolam
Diazepam
Lorazepam
Ketamine
295. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
Extreme dyspnea
Hyperventilation
Extreme headache
Cyanosis
296. The patients with congestive heart failure may have all of these conditions, except:
Cough
Hemoptysis
Difficulty in breathing
Teary eyes
297. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with congestive heart failure is
Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
Oral premedication
Long painless appointments
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
298. The preferred position for the patients with congestive heart failure is
Standing position
Sitting position
Sleeping position
Sleeping position with legs raised a bit upward
299. The incorrect preventive measure before the surgical procedure for a patient with angina pectoris is
Oral premedication, usually 20-50mg diazepam
Written consent from the patient’s cardiologist
Small amounts of vasoconstrictors in local anesthesia
Dental surgery in hospital
300. Precipitating factors of angina pectoris are all, except
Fatigue
Rich meal
Dizziness
Extreme stress
351. Stress from microtrauma results from:
Repeated occlusal overload
Root canal treated tooth
Accident and head injury
All are corrects
352. Any Condition that prevents thorough cleaning of any tooth surface or portion of the sulcus should be consider as a :
Causative factor
Contributive factor
Microtrauma
Microorganism
353. The use of long-term retainers to maintain post-orthodontic tooth alignment could be dramatically reduced if :
Occlusal principles were better understood
Tooth in perfect alignment
It is a good retainer
Perfect ligament and good retainer
354. The #1 factor associated with discomfort within masticatory system structures. This includes pain/discomfort in the musculature, the teeth, and the region of the temporomandibular joints (TMJs).
Occlusal disease
Temporomandibular disorder (TMD)
Muscle pain
Articular pain
355. One noticeable characteristic of Attrition that present on enamel surface is:
Sharp edge of enamel
Smooth edge of enamel
Sharp edge of dentin
Smooth edge of dentin
356. One noticeable characteristic of Erosion that present on enamel surface is :
Sharp edge of enamel
Smooth edge of enamel
Sharp edge of dentin
Smooth edge of dentin
357. One noticeable characteristic of Abrasion which cause by tooth brushing is :
mainly seen on the lingual surface at cervical of the tooth
mainly seen on the buccal surface at cervical of the tooth
mainly seen on the occlusal surface of the tooth
mainly seen on the periodontium of the tooth
358. Occlusal disease is the deformation or disturbances of function of any structure with in the masticatory system that are in disequilibrium with a harmonious interrelationship between:
TMJs, Masticatory muscle, and periodontium
TMJs, Masticatory muscle, and alveolar bone
TMJs, Masticatory muscle, and occluding surface of the teeth
TMJs, periodontium and alveolar bone
359. Attrition wear lower anterior teeth might cause by :
Over conturing of prothesis or any restoration on the buccal surface of upper maxillary incisor.
Over conturing of prothesis or any restoration occlusal surface of upper maxillary incisor.
Over conturing of prothesis or any restoration on the palatal surface of upper maxillary incisor.
All are correct
360. Destroyed Dentition is one of the most demanding occlusal problems to treat, delay of treatment might result in :
wear, fractured maxillary and mandibular teeth,
severe wear, fractured maxillary and mandibular teeth, and elongated alveolar processes
severe wear, fractured maxillary, and elongated alveolar processes
wear, elongated alveolar processes and fractured mandibular teeth
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