FDLE Practice Test
Officers who work for the Florida DOC and its entities are governed by the requirements and rules set out in the Florida Statutes and the:
Florida Model Jail Standards
Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission
Florida Administrative Code
Criminal Justice Professionalism Division
The primary responsibilities of the CJSTC is one of the following except:
Maintain a central repository of records of all certified criminal justice officers.
Set forth rules and procedures to administer the requirements of ss. 943.085-943.255, F.S.
Establish and maintain officer training programs, curricula requirements, and certification of training schools and training school instructors
Provide a training location for the training of correctional, correctional probation, and law enforcement disciplines.
This agency is responsible for removing an officers certification for disciplinary reasons:
The Criminal Justice Professionalism Division
Florida Administrative Code
Florida Basic Recruit Training Program
Criminal Justice Standards and Training Commission
____________ are principles, standards, or qualities considered worthwhile or desirable.
Ethics
Values
Honesty
Ethical Behavior
When it comes to behaviors to avoid as an officer, all are included expect:
Stereotyping
Profiling
Bias or Prejudice
Discrimination
A(n) ______________ is a group of two or more people who cooperate to accomplish an objective or multiple objectives.
Organization
Team
Collaborators
Unit
Failure to follow lawful orders from supervisors in your chain of command is considered ______________.
Rude
Tasteless
Wrong
Insubordination
____________ refers to the structure, functions, and decision-making processes of those agencies that deal with the management and control of crime and criminal offenders.
Government
Judicial System
Law Enforcement Agencies
Criminal Justice
The _______ county courts have limited jurisdiction and handle legal issues.
67
71
68
20
The _______ circuit courts handle legal issues.
20
67
69
13
How many District Court of Appeals does Florida currently have?
13
8
5
9
Which Amendments are of most importance to probation officers?
1st, 4th, 5th, 6th, 7th, 8th
1st, 2nd, 3rd, 5th, 6th, 8th
1st, 2nd, 4th, 5th, 6th, 8th
1st, 2nd, 4th, 5th, 7th, 9th
Officer Molme arrives at an offender's residence and the offender tells the officer that he cannot search his home without a warrant. Which Amendment is the offender attempting to use?
7th
8th
4th
5th
______________ is printed or written evidence, such as a call log, written property receipt, letter, or recording.
Direct Evidence
Indirect Evidence
Testimonial Evidence
Documentary Evidence
____________ refers to material objects such as weapons, drugs, or money.
Physical Evidence
Direct Evidence
Indirect Evidence
Best Evidence
In Graham v. Connor (1989), the Supreme Court held that all law enforcement use of force cases are to be judged by ______________.
Reasonable Force
Objective Reasonableness
Reasonable Expectations
Reasonableness Clause
A __________ is any person who has information about some element of the crime or about evidence or documents related to the crime.
Informant
Witness
Victim
Suspect
Choice the most accurate answer: You must document all use of ___________ in a timely, clear manner, following agency policies and procedures and statute.
OC Spray
Weapons
Force
Handcuffs
An offender can be a ______________ and does not have to be present when a crime or incident is actually committed or attempted.
Accessory
Principal in the First Degree
Accomplice
Secondary Suspect
____________ is responsibility for a wrongful act or an omission that injures a person or property and most often involves negligence.
Elements of Negligence
Civil liability
Criminal liability
Tort
__________ is responsibility for a wrongful act or an omission that injures a person or property and most often involves negligence.
Civil Liability
Criminal Liability
Omission
Failure to Act
There are two main categories of damages that may be awarded in a civil suit. They are:
Punitive & Compensatory
Compensation & Reward
Restitution & Punishment
Compensation & Punitive
_____________ is a civil wrong (liability) in which the action or inaction of a person or entity violates the rights of another person or entity and can serve as grounds for a lawsuit.
Negligence
Failure to Act
Tort
Civil Liability
When an officer acts or claims to act in performing official duties under any law, ordinance, or regulation, the officer is acting under _______________.
Immunities
Good Faith
Emergency Doctrine
Color of Law
If a judge decided that the officer committed a civil wrong or violated civil rights as part of their duties, the employing agency is likely to be liable for damages through _______________.
Association
Vicarious Liability
Criminal Liability
Qualified Liability
A list of circumstances and requirements that must be met before the agency or any of its employees can be sued in a state civil action is:
Qualified Immunity
Legal Defense
Sovereign Immunity
Good Faith Immunity
The defense of _________________ protects government officials from liability for civil damages insofar as their conduct does not violate clearly established statutory or constitutional rights of which a reasonable person would have known.
Qualified Immunity
Acts Justified Under the Law
Sovereign Immunity
Emergency Doctrine
These policies are carefully developed to ensure they comply with legal and ethical guidelines. Agency policies and procedures are developed and published for the officer’s benefit.
Emergency Doctrine
Qualified Immunity
Limiting Liability
Color of Law
The following barriers may result in miscommunication when speaking except:
Use of Hand Gestures
Background Noise
Stereotyping
Lack of Eye Contact
______________ is the act of resolving or managing a dispute or disagreement rationally and effectively.
Self-Talk
Compromising
Conflict Resolution
Arguing
Verbal cues that an offender may escalate the situation can include all but:
Getting Louder
Balling up Fist
Changing voice tone
Threatening Statements
___________ is an impairment of the mental or emotional processes that exercise the conscious control of one’s actions.
Mood Disorders
Bipolar Disorder
Mental Illness
Anxiety Disorders
A person who has _____________ has intrusive thoughts and impulses resulting in ritualistic behavior, such as an excessive need to count, to wash hands, or to avoid dirt.
Phobia
Personality Disorder
Panic Attack
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
A _____________ is a deeply ingrained, non-psychotic, inflexible pattern of relating, perceiving, and behaving.
Obsessive Compulsive Disorder
Phobia
Personality Disorders
Panic Attack
A person with ____________________ is usually aware of their behavior, but lacks the ability to control it and often experiences rapid and intense mood swings and is often self-destructive and impulsive.
Narcissistic personality disorder
Antisocial personality disorder
Borderline personality disorder
Bipolar personality disorder
A person with ______________________ is significantly emotionally unstable and displays inappropriate anger that escalates into physical fights and domestic violence.
Borderline personality disorder
Narcissistic personality disorder
antisocial personality disorder
Bipolar personality disorder
________________ are a group of conditions that cause impairment in physical development, learning, language, or behavior, beginning in early childhood and usually lasting throughout a person’s lifetime.
Developmental disabilities
Intellectual disability
Autism spectrum disorders
Impairments
When interacting with an offender who has a(n) __________________, consider using the caregiver to provide reassurance for the offender and assist with communicating.
Autism spectrum disorder
Impairment
Intellectual disability
Developmental disability
An offender with ___________________ has the right, upon request, to have a mental health or other related professional present during office visits or field supervision activities.
Intellectual disability
Autism spectrum disorder
Developmental disability
Mental health concerns
As the situation de-escalates and an offender’s anxiety decreases, shift to a more ___________________ .
Direct approach
Assertive approach
Collaborative approach
Understanding approach
Once an offender makes the decision to commit suicide, they may display a sense of ______________, giving away personal belongings or getting all their affairs in order.
Relief
Sadness
Despair
Satisfaction
Use appropriate tactics, equipment, and verbal commands in an effort to _______________ the situation.
Resolve
Calm
Understand
De-escalate
Section 119.011(12), F. S., defines __________________ as all documents, photographs, films, sound recordings, data processing software, or other materials, regardless of the physical form or means of transmission, made or received in connection with the transaction of official business by any agency or department.
Public records
Public information
Right to know
Non-confidential records
A secure internet site used by the Florida criminal justice community as a portal to many beneficial electronic criminal justice databases
CJNet
OBIS
NCIC
CCIS
Website link to each county clerk of court within the state of Florida is:
CJNet
FCIC
CCIS
OBIS
When writing a report to the court about an offender, you should avoid ___________________.
Personal information about the offender.
Your recommendation on what should happen to the offender.
Personal inferences or presumptions.
The offenders past probation.
Prior to initiating a written incident report, immediately contact ___________________ when you have knowledge of an incident occurring and relay all relevant information.
Your supervisor
Your senior supervisor
Your circuit administrator
Your deputy circuit administrator
An offender's _________________ is the physical file that contains original copies, signed copies, and any “hard” copies of offender information.
Rap sheet
Case file
Jacket
Offender based information system
Research the ____________ database for any active warrants or detainers on an offender.
CCIS
Local police department
Clerk records
NCIC/FCIC
ISP stands for:
Immediate supervision program
Individual supervision plan
International supervision program
Information standards portfolio
One of the guidelines requires that you must notify the victim or victim’s family of an offender’s supervision within _____ days of orientation.
15
60
30
45
Consent for Authorization for Use and Disclosure Inspection and Release of Confidential Information gives you permission to acquire medical information regarding an offender that will assist in determining their compliance with conditions of supervision. The form is effective for ____ days.
90
120
60
30
The Rapid ID system is the result of the (JLA). What does JLA stand for?
Julia Lakeford Act
Jackie Lucas Act
Jessica London Act
Jessica Lunsford Act
Ambiguous response means there:
Multiple fingerprint images transmitted.
Multiple criminal records.
Multiple potential matches.
Poor fingerprint quality.
(COS) stands for:
Court Order Standards
Cost of Supervision
Criminal Obligations Screen
Court Ordered Sanctions
What are the Four Principles of Practice?
Risk Principle, Want Principle, Treatment Principle, Fidelity Principle
Treatment Principle, Fidelity Principle, Need Principle, Risk Principle
Who Principle, What Principle, How Principle, Where Principle
Risk Principle, Need Principle, How Principle, Fidelity Principle
Motivational Interviewing builds on the concept of _____________________, the idea that it is impossible for a person to hold on to two opposing principles at the same time; one must give way to the other.
Ambivalence
Cognitive dissonance
Thinking for a Change
Evidence-based practice
________________ is the belief in one’s ability or capacity to change a behavior required to attain a specific goal, the confidence to be able to control one’s motivation and behavior.
Self-efficacy
Rokeach Value
Stages of Change
Precontemplation
_______________ suggests that you are aware of individual characteristics and needs when assigning offenders to programs.
Self-Motivating
Observant
Responsivity
Committed
While escorting an offender within the office, always ensure that the offender remains _______________ and within close proximity.
In compliance
In sight
In front of you
With hands in plain view
Offenders are allowed to work at any of the below listed jobs except:
Stripper
Police Officer
Home Inspector
None of these jobs
Residential treatment programs provide secure or non-secure facilities, on either a short term ( _____ to _____ months) or long term (up to 18 months) basis.
3 to 6
4 to 9
6 to 10
6 to 8
When an offender travels, section 775.13, F.S., states that convicted felons must register with the sheriff’s office in the destination jurisdiction, if the visit exceeds ______ hours.
24
72
12
48
According to Department policy, you must complete the PSI within ____ calendar days if an offender is in custody. If the offender is not in custody, complete the PSI within ____ calendar days, providing more time to schedule and conduct an offender interview.
21 & 28
30 & 40
14 & 25
14 & 45
______________ is an offender sentenced under certain qualifying offenses, including kidnapping, false imprisonment, aggravated battery, robbery, burglary, certain sex offenses, or other violent crimes.
Career Offender
Dangerous Felon
VFO
Perpetrator
Officers should instruct their offender that they may not work, or continue to work, as a confidential informant until approval is received from _______________.
Your supervisor
The police department
Sentencing authority
The circuit administrator
Should law enforcement approach you about recruiting an offender to work as a CI, tell the officer or agency that you must first obtain approval from the ____________.
Circuit administrator
Victim
Supervisor
Sentencing authority
Section 914.28, F.S., known as ____________ , places restrictions on the use of a confidential informant to protect an offender and the integrity of the investigation.
Whistle Blower Law
Rachel Law
Jessica Lunsford Law
Megan's Law
You cannot use the Technical Violation Notification letter during the offender’s last ______ days of supervision.
30
60
90
120
________________ are measures that apply increasingly harsher punishments each time an offender violates a condition of supervision.
Sentencing Guidelines
Graduated Sanctions
Violation Hearings
Recidivism
You have already submitted a VOP to the court. While waiting for the hearing date to be set, you discover the offender has been arrested on a new charge. What should you do?
Submit a new VOP packet
Submit a 948.06 hold
Submit an amended affidavit only
Submit an addendum VOP & amended affidavit
The Judge sentenced the offender to serve all three of his sentences at the same time. This type of sentence is known as ________________.
Consecutive sentence
Concurrent sentence
Split sentence
Joint sentence
The prosecutor asked the Judge to have the offender serve each count of his sentence one after the other. The prosecutor is asking for what type of sentence?
Consecutive sentence
Concurrent sentence
Split sentence
Tolling sentence
You are supervising an offender that gets arrested and sentenced to prison while under your supervision. However, you discover that the crime was committed prior to the offender being placed on supervision and is therefore not a violation of probation. The Judge in the probation case orders that the offender's probation should be _________ while the offender is serving time for his new crime.
Consecutive
Concurrent
Tolled
Set aside
The first ______ of the _______ amendments are a special group known as the Bill of Rights.
5 ; 10
10 ; 27
10 ; 25
8 ; 20
____________ is the legal phrase for the link between the breach of duty and the harm caused (damages).
Liability
Proximate cause
Failure to act
Omission
Once an appellate court creates a rule, known as _________, you are required to follow that rule, unless a higher court changes the rule.
Case law
Law
Precedent
Administrative law
_____________ occurs when an offender attempts to get something they want by influencing the officer to do something the officer would not ordinarily do.
Deception
Temptation
Cohesion
Manipulation
A _____________ is a criminal enterprise, an organization of a continuing nature that engages repeatedly in acts of crime, and individually or collectively poses a safety or security threat within, as well as outside of, a correctional facility or probation office.
Traditional Gang
Mafia
Security Threat Group
Hybrid Gangs
The _____________ movement consists of a subculture of society that holds antigovernment beliefs.
Extremism
Sovereign Citizens
Non-traditional
People Nation
________________ is projecting a positive self-image that earns the respect of offenders and the public you serve.
Self Confidence
Professional Demeanor
Command Presence
Authority Posture
________________ is the understanding of the totality of your circumstances and surroundings.
Situational Awareness
Environmentally Alertness
Observation Alertness
Positioning
When you ask yourself questions like: Is the area defensible?; Do I need assistance?; and, Could other parties in the vicinity become involved? This indicates you are practicing __________________.
Survival Mindset
Situational Alertness
Observation
Perception
_______________ is an overly comfortable or relaxed state of mind, which may lull you into a false sense of safety and security.
Zen
Complacency
Tranquil
Placid
The goal of _________________ promotes organizational strategies that support the systemic use of partnerships and problem-solving techniques to proactively address public safety issues such as crime, social disorder, and fear of crime.
Community partnership
Community policing
Communication
Team work
(PCI) stands for:
Preferred Correctional Institute
Payment Card Industry
Planned Correctional Inspection
Planned Compliance Initiative
A few physical signs of substance abuse can include the following except:
Unusual smells on breath, body, or clothing
Sudden weight loss or weight gain
Bloodshot eyes
Lack of energy
_______________ is the continued misuse of substances that negatively affect the mind and body.
Substance Dependence
Substance Abuse
Substance Use
Physical Dependence
______________ refers to the physical and mental symptoms that occur after a person stops or reduces the chronic use of a drug.
Detoxification
Overdose
Withdrawal
Physical Dependence
Should you determine the offender meets the criteria for protective custody under the provisions of the ______________, assist the offender with or without their consent, and remove them from the immediate environment by having law enforcement transport them to an environment that is conducive to their protection and the protection of others.
Marchman Act
Baker Act
Witness Protection
Preventative Act
All of the following are considered Schedule II drugs except __________.
Fentanyl
Opium
LSD
Morphine
All of the following are considered Schedule IV drugs except __________.
Atropine
Ambien
Xanax
Tramadol
All of the following are street names for Fentanyl except _________.
Tooles
He-man
Tango & Cash
King Ivory
All of the following are street names for Opium except ___________.
Hog
Soma
Joy Plant
Hocus
A ___________ is any substance or material that when released may cause harm, serious injury, or death to humans or animals, or may harm the environment.
Contaminated zone
Biohazard
Hazmat
Biological agent
When thinking about the Emergency Response Guidebook, a Class 5 is ______________.
Poisons and infectious substances
Flammable solids
Flammable and combustible liquids
Oxidizing substances
When an offender under supervision is involved in a domestic violence incident as the primary aggressor and the victim reports an incident to you, you should ________________.
Complete a violation report
Have the offender report to the office
Call law enforcement
Contact your supervisor
While in the field, you may become aware of suspected child abuse, neglect, or abandonment or abuse, neglect and exploitation of an elderly or vulnerable adult. Your responsibility is to notify ______________.
Your supervisor
Law enforcement
The circuit administrator
The reginal director
___________ is any willful act or threatened act that results in any physical, mental, or sexual injury or harm that causes or is likely to cause the child’s physical, mental, or emotional health to be significantly impaired.
Assault
Abuse
Neglect
Battery
______________ is more than a failure to use ordinary care for others; it is gross and flagrant negligence, committed with an utter disregard for the safety of others.
Abandonment
Child neglect
Culpable negligence
Elder abuse
A _____________ is a person 18 years of age or older whose ability to perform the normal activities of daily living or to provide for their own care or protection is impaired due to a mental, emotional, sensory, long-term physical, or developmental disability or dysfunction, brain damage, or the infirmities of aging.
Elderly adult
Vulnerable adult
Disabled adult
Mentally challenged
Should you observe illegal or inappropriate items during a plain view observation, you should __________________.
Contact law enforcement
Conduct a warrantless arrest
Leave the premises
Conduct a planned compliance initiative
You are required to conduct a walk-through each time there is _______________.
An anonymous tip about drugs or weapons in the home
A change in residence
A new person that moves in the home
A positive in office drug test
The frequency of walk-though visual inspections is dependent upon ______________.
How compliant the offender is with his supervision
The amount of times they have been on probation
The offender's supervision level, type, or status
The area in which the offender resides
__________ often result from a walk-through visual inspection and do not require a warrant.
Search warrants
Warrantless planned search
Unplanned search
Offender's arrest
You and local law enforcement officers arrive at the offender's home. You advise everyone to stay out of the secure search area but the offender's girlfriend enters anyway. What action could result from this?
Nothing since she lives there and not on probation.
She can be asked to wait outside of the home.
She could be arrested.
She could be handcuffed and detained while you complete your search.
This type of search pattern used for vehicle searches, outdoors, or a large area. Divide the area into four different sections and search each using one of the patterns above.
Grid
Strip/Line
Pie/Wheel
Zone/Quadrant
What are the three MAIN types of evidence?
Testimonial Evidence, Biological, Documentary
Physical, Documentary, Testimonial
Toxicological, Physical, Documentary
Documentary, Testimonial, Biological
When dealing with Toxicological evidence, be sure to package sharp objects such as needles or syringes in puncture-proof packages clearly labeled with the words "________________".
Biohazard: Sharps
Danger: Sharps
Warning: Sharps
Sharps: Biohazard
When you recover evidence of any kind, begin a ___________________.
Violation report
Collection of said evidence
Chain of custody
Arrest of the offender
In terms of first aid, ABC stands for __________________.
Always Be Careful
Active Bleeding Control
Airway Breathing Circulation
Alternate Bleeding Control
According to Black’s Law Dictionary, ____________ is “a duty to take some action to prevent harm to another, and for the failure of which one may be liable, depending on the relationship of the parties and the circumstances.”
Breach of duty
Duty to act
Good Samaritan
Standard of care
______________ is defined in Black’s Law Dictionary as “the failure to exercise the standard of care that a reasonably prudent person would have exercised in a similar situation; any conduct that falls below the legal standard established to protect others against unreasonable risk of harm, except for conduct that is intentionally, wantonly, or willfully disregardful of other’s rights.”
Breach of duty
Duty to act
Abandonment
Negligence
What are the three consents that a person can provide?
Verbal, Written, Implied
Implied, Expressed, Informed
Written, Implied, Verbal
Expressed, Implied, Directed
When you render care to a patient who is hearing-impaired, ______________.
Use sign language
Identify yourself
Write it down
Return later
Stress is an inevitable, unavoidable part of life. Below are all signs of stress except _____________.
Increased appetite
Nightmares
Nail biting
Anxiety
When it comes to first aid, if a patient is dying and asks you if they are dying, what should you say?
What would you like for me to tell your family
You will be in a better place
You are not going to die
We are doing everything we can
Which of the following is the most apparent sign of exposure to Hepatitis?
Headache
Darker Nails
Swelling of feet
Diarrhea
Which infection does one-third of the world's population have?
HIV
COVID-19
TB
Hepatitis C
Which of these diseases is the most common infectious diseases in the United States today?
STD
TB
BSI
MRSA
The ____________ regulates body systems by secreting hormones directly into the bloodstream from glands.
Genitourinary system
Circulatory system
Endocrine system
Central nervous system
The _______________ is responsible for reproduction and waste removal.
Circulatory system
Genitourinary system
Digestive system
Endocrine system
When it comes to first aid, what is LOC short for?
Locate Open Cuts
Level of Care
Level of Consciousness
Level of Consciousness
When it comes to first aid, what does AVPU stand for?
Active, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious
Alert, Verbal, Pulse, Unconscious
Active, Verbal, Pain, Unconscious
Alert, Verbal, Pain, Unresponsive
An adult's normal breathing rate is ________________.
15–30 breaths per minute
25–50 breaths per minute
10-20 breaths per minute
12–20 breaths per minute
To calculate a patient's breathing rate, watch the patient's chest rise; count the number of breaths taken over ___________ seconds.
16
18
12
15
The normal breathing rate of a child is ________ per minute.
15–30 breaths
10-20 breaths
25–50 breaths
20-30 breaths
_____________ is a severe allergic reaction in which air passages swell and restrict breathing.
Cyanosis
Anaphylaxis
Allergic rhinitis
Eczema
If respiratory rate is 30 or fewer breaths per minute, __________________.
Open airway
Assess perfusion
Check for breathing
Tag black
If respiratory rate is 30 more breaths per minute, _______________.
Assess perfusion
Tag black
Tag red
Tag yellow
__________ a closed injury that is discolored and painful at the injury site.
Bruising
Hematoma
Swelling
Contusion
__________ a closed injury that appears as a discolored lump.
Contusion
Contusion
Hematoma
Swelling
__________ is the soft tissue raised when blood or other body fluids pool beneath the skin at the injury site.
Hematoma
Contusion
Bruising
Swelling
_________ injury characterized by a flap of torn or cut skin that may not be completely loose from the body.
Avulsion
Evisceration
Abrasion
Puncture Wound
__________ dark red blood oozes slowly from a wound, indicating damaged capillaries.
Arterial Bleeding
Capillary Bleeding
Venous Bleeding
External Bleeding
If the umbilical cord wraps around the baby’s neck and you cannot remove the cord, what is the most appropriate response?
Keep the baby’s airway open by forming a V with the fingers of your gloved hand.
Arrange for prompt transport to a medical center.
Form an airway by pushing the baby’s face away from the birth canal until the head delivers.
Encourage the patient to continue breathing and stop pushing.
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