1st term Quiz

Name:

1- True total anodontia may be a feature of .....

2- Talon cusp is ....

3- Turner's tooth is a form of .....

4- Gemination is defined as ....

5- Mulberry molars are characteristic feature of ...

6- The condition at which the teeth resembles the cud-chewing animals'ones...

7-Fusion of two teeth along their roots by cementum only is .........,while fusion of two teeth involving dentin is .............

8-Developing ameloblasts are affected by the ingestion of high fluoride content water resulting in :

9-Gemination of teeth occur due to :

10- Teeth that erupt within 30 days of birth are called :

11-Ghost teeth is seen in which of the following ?

12-Dental anomaly of teeth associated with defective bone formation is seen in :

13-A four year old child has less number of teeth and lateral incisors with bifurcated roots with two root canals. This condition is called:

14-Microdontia is seen most commonly affecting:

15-Shell teeth are more common in this variant of dentinogenesis imperfect:

16-Dilated odontome is a synonym of

17-The appearance of normal thickness enamel with extremely thin dentin and abnormally large pulp chamber is indicative of

18-Loss of organization of radicular dentin with subsequent shortening of root length is a feature of

19-Lack of development of six or more teeth is denoted by the term

20-True generalized microdontia is characterized by

21-Gardner's Syndrome does not include:

22- A 4-year-old child has a normal complement of primary teeth, but they are gray and exhibit extensive occlusal and incisal wear. Radiographic examination indicates extensive deposits of secondary dentin in these teeth. Most likely this condition is:

23-Submerged teeth are:

24-Absence of pulp chamber is seen in…

25-Turner's Tooth is seen in….

26-Delayed eruption of at least part of the dentition is recognized feature of all of the following except…….

27-Which of the following isn't hereditary ?

28-Complete obliteration of pulp is seen in all except….

29- Large pulp chambers are characteristic of all of the following conditions except…

30- Which of the following is the cause of dilacerations ?

31- A 7 year old child has yellowish discolored spot of maxillary central incisor. His mother presents a history of injury to deciduous tooth three years back with recurrent infections and swelling. The diagnosis is….

32- Lavender teeth is a term given for…………….

33-The intestinal Polyps in……….... Are considered premalignant condition.

34-Multiple Dentigerous cysts occur in…………..

35-Clinical evidence of Dentinogenesis imperfecta type I and II is…..

36-The term "Dilaceration" refers to…

37-Mesiodens is……..

38-Thistle tube appearance of the pulp is characteristic of………

39-Turner's tooth most commonly affects……

40-Which of these structures is not affected in hereditary ectodermal dysplasia?

41-Talon cusp is a characteristic of which syndrome?

42. Apart from maxillary lateral incisor, which other tooth is commonly affected by microdontia?

43. Fusion of teeth involves a confluence of

44. The base of invagination of crown/root in dens invaginates contains

45. Which amongst the following diseases is capable of producing developmental alterations in teeth?

46. Peg shaped incisors which taper toward the incisal edge are typically seen in all of the following conditions except:

47.A deep pit lined by enamel seen in the lingual surface of maxillary lateral incisor is most likely to be:

48. Dentinogenesis Imperfecta is:

49. False about anodontia:

50. Most commonly submerged tooth is:

51. A dens in dente is usually caused by:

52. In children the most frequently missing permanent teeth are:

53. Odontodysplasia is most common in:

54. Dens in dente is most commonly seen in:

55. Taurodontism is usually seen in:

56-Mildest form of cleft palate is..........

57-Macrostomia is a feature of.....

58-Airway obstruction is a clinical significance of.....

59-Lingual thyroid nodule is considered as......

60- A child has marked difference of crown, root size, eruption pattern of left and right side of jaw. The condition is :

61-Which of the following conditions has a potential of malignant transformation ?

62-Treacher collins syndrome is characterized by all the following except.....

63-Decrease in normal keratin desquamation of filiform papillae leads to.....

64-Among the features of Melkerson Rosenthal syndrome ....

65-Which of the following conditions disappears on stretching the buccal mucosa ?

66-All of the followings considerd as hamartoma except....

67-Absence of a major salivary gland duct is called.........

68-In Erythema migrans , which papilla of the tongue are absent ?

69. Facial Paralysis , Cheilitis granulomatosa and fissured tongue characterize which of the following syndromes ?

70-The syndrome which consists of cleft palate, micrognathia and glossoptosis is known as :

71-A patient notices a well demarcated area of depapillation on his tongue which has been there for as long as he can remember. The most probable diagnosis:

72-Fordyce's spots are:

73-Hairy tongue is characterized by :

74-Bifid tongue, a congenital anomaly occurs due to non-fusion of :

75-About geographic tongue, all are true except :

76-Median rhomboid glossitis is asssociated with :

77-In Treacher's collins syndrome, there is :

78-Pierre Robin syndrome is associated with :

79-Puetz - Jegher Syndrome is characterized by :

80-About geographic tongue, Which of the following isn't true:

81-Syndactyl is a common feature of……….

82. Cleft of the primary palate occurs

83. Minimal form of clefting of palate is seen in

84. Increased risk of development of squamous cell carcinoma is associated with which of the following developmental conditions?

85. If a patient has multiple intestinal polyps, cutaneous melanocytic macules, rectal prolapse and gynecomastia, he/she is probably suffering from

86. Fordyce’s granules is heterotopic collection of _______ in oral cavity

87. Which amongst the following is not a cause of macroglossia?

88. Which one of the following is a synonym of fissured tongue?

89. Median rhomboid glossitis occurs

90. Histopathological features of benign migratory glossitis closely resemble that of

91. Amongst the following causes, the least probable cause of hairy tongue is

92. A nodular mass near base of tongue with presenting complaints of dyspnea and dysphagia and without a demonstrable main thyroid gland could most probably be

93. Stafne cyst/Stafne defect is an aberrant collection of _____ gland tissue within a deep depression in the mandible

95- Bohn's nodules are:

96- Prolonged administration of broad spectrum antibiotics results in the formation of:

97- Nasolabial cyst is thought to arise from:

98- A bony hard asymptomatic swelling found on the midline of the hard palate, that appears radiopaque on radiograph is most likely:

99- Static bone cyst is a cyst developing from:

100- Failure of descend of thyroid analage can be seen in the tongue:

101- Geographic tongue is of red color because of:

102- Most characteristic feature of mandibulofacial dysostosis is:

103- True about enameloma:

104- The fusion of the alveolar bone to a tooth is known as:

105- All of following statements regarding amelogenesis imperfecta are true except:

106- An enamel defect resulting from the incomplete formation of the enamel matrix is called:

107- Lateral facial cleft may be associated with:

108- 85% of the commonly occurring natal teeth are:

109-All is true about caries except.....

110-The lateral spread of dental caries is facilitated mostly by the.......

111-The chief acid produced by enzymatic breakdown of carbohydrates by bacteria is........

112-Saliva has a buffering effect in dental caries due to....

113-All of the following are features of levan except.....

114-The arch criminal of dental caries is.........

115-The experiment that proved the dental caries is a bacterial disease is..........

116-The intracellular polysaccharide used by bacteria in CHO deficiency is..........

117-The pioneer bacteria on dental pellicle is.........

118-The critical PH that dental caries starts below is..............

119- The lateral extension of dentinal tubules due to proliferation of microorganism is called.....

120-Starch is considered to be less cariogenic than monosaccharides and disaccharides because it…

121-Organism involved in smooth surface caries is: 1.Streptococcus Mutans 2.Actinomyces viscosus 3.Lactobacillus 4.Campylobacter

122-In patient with reduced salivary flow the caries incidence is:

123-The number of dentinal zones in dentinal caries is:

124-Widely accepted theory of dental caries is:

125-The correct order of microscopic zones of dentinal caries starting from the DEJ is:

126-The dietary carbohydrate most likely involved in etiology of dental caries is:

127-In the earliest stages of carious lesion, there is loss of:

128-Smooth surface caries is characterized by spread of caries in enamel and dentin as cones. These alignment in enamel and dentin is:

129-Which tooth in the permanent dentition is the most susceptible to dental caries?

130-Calcium Fluorapatite crystals have less solubility in acids than normal crystals. Lower anterior teeth have high caries index than upper anterior teeth.

131-In a caries free individual, the saliva has:

132-Early invading bacteria in carious lesions are called:

133-Which of the following factors in the Stephan's curve is related to the caries incidence and sugar intake?

134-Animals maintained in a germ free environment fed on a high cariogenic diet did not develop caries. Is given by:

135-The Pioneer bacteria which invade the dentin are:

136-From the options listed, which type of carbohydrate cannot give Stephan's curve:

137-A caries increment of………. Or more new carious lesions over one year is considered characteristic of rampant caries.

138-Transverse clefts occur in incremental lines of Von Ebner because:

139-Beading occurs in affected dentin zone. The pellicle is cellular layer.

140-The zone which has 1% pores in early enamel caries is:

141-Newly erupted teeth are hypermineralized and less susceptible to caries. Temperature is one of the factors implicated in dental caries.

142-Bacterial growth in a vertical direction forming columns of bacteria in:

143-Eburnation of dentin is:

144-Which type of Immunoglobulins is considered a component of saliva?

145. All of the below given factors are responsible for causing dental caries except

146. According to miller, which of these acids was held responsible for producing the lesions of dental caries, according to Miller?

147. From the properties given below identify which one does render carbohydrates cariogenic?

148. The factor that is least associated with increased incidence of dental caries is

149. Undermining of enamel occurs due to

150. The least likely location for occurrence of smooth surface caries is:

151. Which theory of dental caries proposes that organic elements in teeth are the initial pathway of invasion of microorganisms?

152. Acute dental caries occurs most frequently in children and young adults because

153. Absence of caries in _______ teeth helps to distinguish nursing bottle caries from rampant caries

154. Which type of caries is most likely to show considerable surface destruction, shallow cavity, little undermining of enamel and little or no pain?

155. The first change to occur in caries of enamel is

156. Which surface of a tooth has maximum susceptibility for occurrence of dental caries?

157. In enamel caries, the advancing front of the lesion is called

158. Of all the zones in enamel caries which zone is not always present?

159. What is the earliest histological evidence of dentinal caries?

160- Recurrent caries occurs due to all of the following factors except:

161-All are zones of enamel caries except:

162- Which zone of enamel caries shows greatest demineralization?

163- Positive zone of enamel caries is:

164- Greatest concentration of fluoride is seen in which zone of enamel caries?

165-All are zones of dentinal caries except:

166- Which one of the following occurs earliest in caries of dentin?

167- Which statement is true for dry socket ?

168- Which of the following lesions if not treated most likely to cause periapical lesion ?

169- Which lesion in the oral cavity that can be complicated to a radicular cyst if untreated ?

170- An acute periapical abscess is usually due to......

171- Classification of pulpitis include the following except.....

172- The chief cells seen in acute periapical abscess are......

173- Radiographic examination of a tooth involved in acute periapical abscess shows.....

174- A child complaining from a mass in his lower first molar which showed hyposensititivity in thermal and electric response.

175- A patient presents with a painful tooth which he feels high in the oral cavity. The tooth was extremely sensitive to percussion. Regional lymphadenopathy was also present. The most likely diagnosis is .......

176- Dull aching type of pain is characteristic feature of .......

177- Cholesterol clefts may be found in histological examination of.........

178-Which of the following statements is false about focal reversible pulpitis?

179-Chronic hyperplastic pulpitis (pulp polyp) is essentially:

180-The earliest response of pulpitis is:

181. The phenomenon by which bacteria circulating in blood accumulate at the site of pulpal inflammation is called as

182. Most accepted explanation for anachoretic pulpitis is

183. The more accepted terminology for pulp hyperemia is

184. Focal reversible pulpitis is most commonly seen in all of the following cases except

185. Pain which increases in intensity as the patient lies down is characteristic of

186. Microabscess formation within inflamed pulp is characteristic of

187. Sensitivity to electric pulp vitality tester in acute pulpitis is lost in later stages because of

188. Which amongst the following characteristics is not associated with chronic hyperplastic pulpitis?

189. Which teeth are most commonly involved by chronic hyperplastic pulpitis?

190. All of the following except _______ occur as a sequel to pulpitis.

191. All of the following except _______ are common radiological features associated with a periapical granuloma.

192. Foam cells within periapical granulomas are ______ cells that have ingested lipids.

193. Apical periodontal cyst usually occurs as a sequela of

194. Which amongst the following is not a predisposing factor of osteomyelitis?

195. Condensing osteitis is another name for

196. In which type of osteomyelitis will you find focal gross thickening of periosteum with peripheral reactive bone formation?

197. What term is applied to a radiolucent lesion within the alveolar ridge at the site of a previous tooth extraction?

198. If a periapical abscess drains intraorally through a sinus tract after perforating the buccal cortical plate and surface epithelium it forms a mass of granulation tissue known as

199. The lateral radicular cyst arises from

200. Which of the following lesions cannot be differentiated from each other on the basis of size and radiographic appearance?

201. Chronic apical periodontitis is another name of

202- In the radiographic picture of acute osteomyelitis which statement is true ?

203- Garre's osteomyelitis is characterizied clinically by ..........

204- In diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis........

205- Onion skin appearance is a radiographic feature seen in ......

206- The radiographic examination of diffuse sclerosing osteomyelitis shows......

207- The dead bone separated from the vital bone is defined as........

208- Expansion of jaw bones is seen in:

209- Focal Sclerosing Osteomyelitis is:

210-Most common cyst in oral region is:

211-Which of the following conditions is often associated with a vital pulp?

212- Osteomyelitis begins as an inflammation of:

213- A tooth with a 3 month history of pain, which was worse when hot liquids were in mouth. After extraction, the tooth was split open. The pulp chamber was completely filled with pus. A few remnants of pulp tissue were found in apical end. The condition is:

214- A person experiences throbbing pain at night. It's due to:

215- Reversible pulpitis change to irreversible pulpitis primarily because of:

216- The caries of enamel surface leads to accentuation of:

217- Constant feature associated with a radicular cyst:

218- Best way to differentiate between periapical cyst and periapical granuloma is:

219- Which of the following is more prone to osteomyelitis?

220- Tiny linear or arc-shaped bodies, amorphous, brittle and eosinophilic in reaction, found in association with some odontogenic cysts, are called:

221-Which of the following represents a soluble polyacrylamide found in dental plaque and is formed from the fructose moiety of sucrose?

222- A 30 year old patient with radiographic appearance of endosteal bone formation, sclerosed bone is likely to be suffered from?

223-What is usually associated with lateral periodontal cyst ?

224- odontogenic keratocyst develops......

225-Which of the following lesions exhibit ghost cells ?

226-Rushton and Russell bodies are present in........

227-The developmental cyst enclosing the tooth crown at the level of CEJ is.......

228- All of the following can't be seen during the radiographic examination except......

229- Multiple dentigerous cysts can be seen in..........

230- The soft tissue counterpart of dentigerous cyst is .........

231- which of the following may be a painful cyst ?

232-The radiographic inverted pear shape is a characterisic feature for..........

233-All of the following are multilocular cysts except..............

234-The Scalloping radiolucency between roots of teeth is characterized for............

235- A cyst under the tongue caused by obstruction of major salivary gland duct is termed:

236- Botryoid odontogenic cyst is a variant of:

237-Eruption cyst:

238- One of them is not a true cyst:

239- Dentigerous cyst is likely to cause which neoplasia ?

240-Odontogenic Keratocyst has the following feature:

241-Multiple odontogenic keratocyst are associated with:

242- After entering a radiolucent lesion in a 30 yr old man, hollow cavity without epithelial lining is seen, the most probable diagnosis is :

243- The cyst that remains behind in the jaws after removal of the tooth is :

244-A median palatal cyst arises from:

245-Which of the following cysts is considered to be a soft tissue counterpart of lateral periodontal cyst?

246-A well defined radiolucent lesion attached to the neck of an impacted mandibular third molar in a 20 year old male is most likely to be:

247-Which of the following lesions resemble frog's belly?

248-Which of the following is not a radiographic variety of dentigerous cyst?

249-A cyst resembling a punch of grapes is termed:

250-A Mucocele is not a true cyst because:

251. A dentigerous cyst develops due to collection of fluid between _________ and tooth surface.

252. The tooth most commonly involved by dentigerous cyst is

253. Which one of the following odontogenic cysts grows in an anteroposterior direction within the medullary spaces of bone?

254. All of the following statements except _______ are true regarding odontogenic keratocyst

255. Which one of the following is an important factor in the recurrence of odontogenic keratocysts?

256. All of the following except _____________ are examples of developmental odontogenic cysts.

257. A primordial cyst is now believed to represent

258. Small, superficial, keratin filled cysts that are found on the alveolar mucosa of infants are most likely to be

259. Spot the only fissural/inclusion cyst amongst the below given cysts

260. A smooth, translucent swelling on gingival mucosa overlying the crown of an erupting tooth is suggestive of

261. Carcinoma arising within the odontogenic cyst linings is a complication seen most commonly in which cyst?

262. Gorlin cyst is more commonly referred to as

263. Histological features of thin epithelial lining, ameloblast-like basal cell layer with overlying layers resembling stellate reticulum and abundant ghost cell within the epithelial lining are suggestive of

264. A swelling of the upper lip lateral to the midline resulting in elevation of the ala of the nose is most likely to be

265. Spot the only inflammatory odontogenic cysts amongst the below given cysts

266. Select a false statement regarding calcifying odontogenic cyst from below given statements

267. Microscopic features of ___________ in some areas sometimes resemble those of a low grade mucoepidermoid carcinoma.

268- Which histological type of odontogenic keratocyst is commoner, more invasive and has a greater tendency for recurrence?

269- The pathogenesis of periapical cyst is?

270- Potential complications stemming from dentigerous cyst are:

286. Trisomy 21 syndrome is better known as _______ syndrome.

296. Delayed eruption of teeth occurs in:

303. Slanting eyes, decrease of the sexual development, macroglossia and enamel hypoplasia are seen in:

312. Coppor beaten appearance in skull radiographs is seen in patients affected with:

313. Diastema is a common sequla of:

314. Regarding to root caries one senctence is correct when compared to coronal caries:

315. In pathogenesis of dilaceration, the position of............is changed.

316. Cheilitis glandularis typically occurs on the:

317. Red macular appearance of oral mucosa is seen in patients affected with:

318. Taurodontism is characterized by:

319. Crescent shaped pulp chambers are seen in:

321. Old age appearance is common in patients affected by:

322. Among the environmental factors involved in the etiology of facial clefts is:

323. Phoenix abscess is:

324. Which sentence is wrong?

325. Gingival cyst of the adult has the predilection to occur in?

326. Progression of dental caries on pit and fissures occur from:

327. Enameloma is considered a type of:

328. Hereditary gingival fibromatosis is:

329. One of the following is not a predisposing factors for a dry socket:

330. Aerodontalgia occurs with:

331. Globulomaxillary cyst is:

332. Dentin dysplasia is an acquired defect of dentin structure. Type II is more common than type I.

334. The position at which dilaceration occurs depends on:

337. The etiology for occurrence of self-strangulation in pulpitis is: (معلش عارف إن إجابات كتير صح لكن الدكتورة عايزة السبب المباشر اللي هيأدي للمشكلة)